Is God a contingent being?

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"Verbum Caro:
Wouldn’t that depend on whether or not God has some sort of knowledge of all contingent beings, including those that are hypothetical (i.e. in possible worlds)? Could His knowledge of both actualized and hypothetical beings be the same no matter what possible (or actual) word you looked at?
Aha! This is what I’ve been trying to say. 👍 (Also, I assume “word” is a typo for “world.”)
The answer is no, for He has also to know which beings are really actualized, which differ between the possible worlds.
 
According to classical theism, God is absolutely simple. What this means is that there is absolutely no composition in God; His essence is identical **in substance **to His knowledge, His will, His justice, His mercy, and all of His other attributes and powers.

Now, imagine other possible worlds with a different set of contingent beings (or no contingent beings). These could only occur because God willed them so. But since God’s will is different in these worlds, that means His essence is also different, which means it is a different being, a different God, in these worlds. Which means that the God in this world is not a necessary being, but a contingent one, since the same God does not exist in all possible worlds.

Or, alternatively, one could posit (although contrary to classical theism, which posits God’s freedom in creation) that this world is the only possible one. This would save God being a necessary being, but at the cost of every other being also being a necessary being.
The exercise of God’s will is not itself God’s essence. God’s essence is unchanging. God’s actions with regard to creation are contingent and free. God’s freedom of choice is itself an aspect of that absolutely simple essence.

Edwin
 
The answer is no, for He has also to know which beings are really actualized, which differ between the possible worlds.
SC,

But I was under the impression beings are not really actualized in any of the possible worlds. Isn’t that what you hold?

So if God (the actual God of our actual world, W1) knows everything actual in W1 plus everything hypothetical in W2, and the hypothetical God in W2 knows everything hypothetical in W2 and everything actual in W1, wouldn’t they both have the same knowledge and essence? Couldn’t God be a “transworld being”? – identical to Himself in every possible world?

If none of the other possible worlds are actualized, and if God knows all actual and all hypothetical beings, then it would seem to me to exhaust the limits of what God knows. It would seem to me that God knows the same thing about and in each possible world.

But, as you seem to have more experience with modalities, I await your explanation. But please, in the words of General Sarris to Commander Quincy Taggart in the possible world of Galaxy Quest: “Explain as you would a child.”

VC
 
The exercise of God’s will is not itself God’s essence.
Yes, it is, if God is absolutely simple. There is no ontological distinction between the two, only an epistemic distinction. God can have no “attribute”. He is identical to His will.
God’s essence is unchanging. God’s actions with regard to creation are contingent and free.
A contradiction, as we’ve seen.
God’s freedom of choice is itself an aspect of that absolutely simple essence.
An absolutely simple essence can have no ontological “aspects”. You should say rather, God’s freedom of choice is identical to that essence. But then, so is how He uses that freedom.
 
SC,

But I was under the impression beings are not really actualized in any of the possible worlds. Isn’t that what you hold?
A possible world is what might have existed - e.g. the beings are hypothetically actualized in that world.
So if God (the actual God of our actual world, W1) knows everything actual in W1 plus everything hypothetical in W2, and the hypothetical God in W2 knows everything hypothetical in W2 and everything actual in W1, wouldn’t they both have the same knowledge and essence? Couldn’t God be a “transworld being”? – identical to Himself in every possible world?
No, because hypothetical world W2 contains a different set of actualized beings than does W1 - by definition, otherwise, it’s the same world. Therefore, hypothetically, if world W2 exists instead of W1, there is a different knowledge set.
If none of the other possible worlds are actualized, and if God knows all actual and all hypothetical beings, then it would seem to me to exhaust the limits of what God knows. It would seem to me that God knows the same thing about and in each possible world.
Again, in a different possible world, the actual beings are different - by definition.
But, as you seem to have more experience with modalities, I await your explanation. But please, in the words of General Sarris to Commander Quincy Taggart in the possible world of Galaxy Quest: “Explain as you would a child.”
Imagine a world where I do not exist. Hypothetically, the God in that world knows something different than the God in this one. Please let me know if you still don’t understand. I’ll do what I can to make it clearer.
 
Imagine a world where I do not exist. Hypothetically, the God in that world knows something different than the God in this one. Please let me know if you still don’t understand. I’ll do what I can to make it clearer.
I think this is just over my head. I’m not being falsely humble about it, because most things I read are not over my head----but this might be.

I’m getting the same objection Verbum Caro is getting. It seems to me that even if I imagine the world in which I do not exist (W2), the God in that world knows the same thing the God in this world (W1) knows: namely, that I do not exist in that world (W2).

However, it seems to me that you are saying that the existence of W2 (a world which comprises all truly existing things) would preclude the existence of God in W1, since in that world W1 would be the hypothetical world. So God’s existence would also be modally contingent. The only way around that, as Verbum Caro has perhaps suggested but not spelled out, would be to say that God’s existence is not really like our existence in some highly significant ways.

Well, I guess I wouldn’t have a problem with that; as Aquinas points out, we cannot speak of God univocally, but only analogically. To say that “God exists,” then, would not be precisely parallel to saying that “I exist.” You seem to have put your finger on the precise difference; what Verbum Caro called a “trans-world” existence that is somehow equally necessary in all conceivable realities?
 
Imagine a world where I do not exist. Hypothetically, the God in that world knows something different than the God in this one. Please let me know if you still don’t understand. I’ll do what I can to make it clearer.
Thank you, I will.

I don’t quite understand why the God of the world where you don’t exist would know something different from the God of this world, where you do exist, **if **both Gods know that you exist in this world, and don’t exist in the other.

VC
 
I think this is just over my head. I’m not being falsely humble about it, because most things I read are not over my head----but this might be.
Let’s give it one more try.
I’m getting the same objection Verbum Caro is getting. It seems to me that even if I imagine the world in which I do not exist (W2), the God in that world knows the same thing the God in this world (W1) knows: namely, that I do not exist in that world (W2).
But He would also know that world W2, rather than W1, is the actual world, unlike the God in this world, who knows W1 is the real world. Right? Thus His knowledge is different.
However, it seems to me that you are saying that the existence of W2 (a world which comprises all truly existing things) would preclude the existence of God in W1, since in that world W1 would be the hypothetical world. So God’s existence would also be modally contingent.
Yes, that’s what I’m saying. It’s not that God “could have decided” to actualize either W2 or W1. The God actualizing W2 is a different God from the one actualizing W1.
The only way around that, as Verbum Caro has perhaps suggested but not spelled out, would be to say that God’s existence is not really like our existence in some highly significant ways.
Well, I guess I wouldn’t have a problem with that; as Aquinas points out, we cannot speak of God univocally, but only analogically.
That is not a way around it. That God’s existence is not exactly like ours has already been assumed for purposes of the discussion. But that is no excuse for all of a sudden redefining the concept or meaning of the word “existence”. It renders the phrase “God exists” meaningless.

This is just like when someone gets stuck in a corner on a problem of evil discussion, and then he says well, our notion of “goodness” can have no relation to God’s “goodness”. This renders the phrase “God is good” meaningless.

Of course God does not possess “existence” or “goodness” as “properties” as we normally conceive them. Nevertheless our notions of what these things are must bear some relation to the truth of the matter, else these expressions are as meaningful as “God is yaqfil”. What is yaqfil? Why, it’s whatever God is, of course.

(BTW when it comes to existence, I think you’ve got it backwards; God’s existence is univocal, ours only analogical.)
To say that “God exists,” then, would not be precisely parallel to saying that “I exist.”
In what sense?
You seem to have put your finger on the precise difference; what Verbum Caro called a “trans-world” existence that is somehow equally necessary in all conceivable realities?
But there’s a huge difference between positing “A God must exist” and “The God must exist”. If a different God exists in every different possible (not merely conceivable) reality then The God, a necessary being, does not exist.
 
Thank you, I will.

I don’t quite understand why the God of the world where you don’t exist would know something different from the God of this world, where you do exist, **if **both Gods know that you exist in this world, and don’t exist in the other.

VC
Because they know what world is actualized, and it’s a different world in each case.
 
Because they know what world is actualized, and it’s a different world in each case.
Okay, how about this (I’m not terribly up on modal logic, so tell me if this is even possible): It seems a mistake even to speak of W1, W2, etc., as different worlds. If W1 is the “world,” as we’ve been using the term, then W2, W3, W4, and so on, would only be possible within the context of W1; that is, they would be subsumed within W1. To say that W2 is possible would change the very definition of W1 as the “world,” wouldn’t it?
 
Okay, how about this (I’m not terribly up on modal logic, so tell me if this is even possible): It seems a mistake even to speak of W1, W2, etc., as different worlds. If W1 is the “world,” as we’ve been using the term, then W2, W3, W4, and so on, would only be possible within the context of W1; that is, they would be subsumed within W1.
No, that’s not how it works. Just think of a hypothetical world, one without a creature that now exists, or one with a creature that now does not. If that world had come to pass, then ours would not have.
To say that W2 is possible would change the very definition of W1 as the “world,” wouldn’t it?
No, if our actual world is only contingent, then that implies - by definition, another is possible (and that without our world needing to be actual).
 
Thanks for your replies. Bear with me here.

Here’s your argument (paraphrased):
  1. If I am a contingent being in W1, I might not exist in W2.
  2. If I might not exist in W2, God in W2 would know this possibility in W2.
  3. If God in W2 knows this possibility in W2, God in W2 would differ from God in W1, who does know my existence in W1.
  4. If God in W2 differs from God in W1, God is not a universally necessary being.
5a. So either God is contingent, or:

5b. God is a universally necessary being.

If the latter, by modus tollens we go all the way back to: Therefore, it is not the case that I am a contingent being in W1; I would be necessary, too.

HOWEVER:

It strikes me that premise 3 is the problem. You are arguing that the following cannot both be true simultaneously, given the classical conception of God:

God in W2 knows of the possibility of my non-existence in W2.
God in W1 knows of my existence in W1.

However, what I (and I think Verbum Caro, although he can speak for himself much better than I can) am arguing is that I don’t see how those two statements are necessarily contradictory; that is, it does seem to me that they can both be true.

You might say, It doesn’t matter if they can both be TRUE; the point is that God’s knowledge would be DIFFERENT in both cases.

However, why so? God in W1 knowing of my existence in W1 does not preclude his additionally knowing what God in W2 knows, does it?

(Sorry to back out right now, but I’ve got a class. Bye!)
 
Thanks for your replies. Bear with me here.
Sure,
Here’s your argument (paraphrased):
OK, please allow me to change, and clarify.
  1. If I am a contingent being in W1, I might not exist in W2.
  1. If I am a contingent being in W1, there is a possible world W2 in which I do not exist (from the definition of contingent being).
  1. If I might not exist in W2, God in W2 would know this possibility in W2.
  1. In W2, God in W2 would know I do not exist (from the definition of God as omniscient). Alternatively,
  2. In W2, God in W2 did not create me (from the definition of God as First Cause).
  1. If God in W2 knows this possibility in W2, God in W2 would differ from God in W1, who does know my existence in W1.
This should read
3. Since God in W2 knows about my non-existence, God in W2 differs from W1, who knows about my existence.
  1. If God in W2 differs from God in W1, God is not a universally necessary being.
Correct, from the definition of necessary being.
5a. So either God is contingent, or:
5b. God is a universally necessary being.
5a. So either God is contingent, or:
5b. This is the only possible world.
If the latter, by modus tollens we go all the way back to: Therefore, it is not the case that I am a contingent being in W1; I would be necessary, too.
Yes.
It strikes me that premise 3 is the problem. You are arguing that the following cannot both be true simultaneously, given the classical conception of God:
God in W2 knows of the possibility of my non-existence in W2.
God in W1 knows of my existence in W1.
No, in W2 God knows of my actual non-existence.
In W2 God knows of my actual existence.
However, what I (and I think Verbum Caro, although he can speak for himself much better than I can) am arguing is that I don’t see how those two statements are necessarily contradictory; that is, it does seem to me that they can both be true.
God would know of the possibility of my existence or non-existence in every world. It’s my actual existence which is different between the worlds.
You might say, It doesn’t matter if they can both be TRUE; the point is that God’s knowledge would be DIFFERENT in both cases.
However, why so? God in W1 knowing of my existence in W1 does not preclude his additionally knowing what God in W2 knows, does it?
(Sorry to back out right now, but I’ve got a class. Bye!)
Yes, if God in W1 knows my actual existence, and God in W2 knows my actual non-existence.
 
SC,

I still don’t understand your use of the word “actual” in describing possible worlds. Case in point, your use of the phrase “my actual non-existence.”

From my encounters with modal theory, the word “actual” denotes objects that exist. “Actualists” hold that the only things that exist make up the actual (our) world.

Others (e.g. David Lewis) hold that the word “actual” serves only an index function for our world – that there are concrete objects that exist in possible worlds – so they can say that there exist possible but non-actual objects.

If you are in the former camp, how can you say “my actual non-existence”? If your non-existence is actual, it means you don’t really exist, and you couldn’t be typing that sentence. Your non-existence, although possible, is not actual.

VC
 
SC,

I still don’t understand your use of the word “actual” in describing possible worlds. Case in point, your use of the phrase “my actual non-existence.”
I’m using the term hypothetically, as to what **would **be actual were another possible world actualized. Let’s say, if hypothetically W2 were actualized rather than W1, then Bob Jones would exist (and be actual) rather than not. Thus, hypothetically, God’s knowledge (and will) would not be the same in the two worlds.

You’re trying to say, even if W1 were actualized, God would have the same knowledge, because Bob Jones would still not exist in world W1 and would exist in world W2. But what is different is what actually **is **actualized. You can’t say, well in point of fact Bob Jones isn’t actualized in this world and that’s that. He would be actual in another possible world, and in **that **world (which doesn’t exist but could have) God’s knowledge would therefore be different.
From my encounters with modal theory, the word “actual” denotes objects that exist. “Actualists” hold that the only things that exist make up the actual (our) world.
Others (e.g. David Lewis) hold that the word “actual” serves only an index function for our world – that there are concrete objects that exist in possible worlds – so they can say that there exist possible but non-actual objects.
I hold to the first view, but it doesn’t really matter.
If you are in the former camp, how can you say “my actual non-existence”? If your non-existence is actual, it means you don’t really exist, and you couldn’t be typing that sentence. Your non-existence, although possible, is not actual.
I would mean your hypothetical non-existence in a possible world. But in that world, your non-existence is actual. That is to say, if that world were the one actualized, you would not exist.
 
This thread is giving me a headache, but I really am interested in understanding what the OP is trying to say.

Seeking Catholic, is this a fair understanding of the way you are using terms?

You define “the world” as all that exists, including God. So when you are talking about W 1, W 2 etc. you are defining them as completely separate worlds, where our God would be only be a part of the world He created, the one that includes us. Our particular God can’t have created different worlds because we are defining world as the entirety of everything that can exist, including Himself.

Therefore, God could not have created any other worlds, because for them to be truly different worlds, and not just subsets of ours, their creator would have to be different, since by your definition, a world includes the creating God.

So this would mean if we believe in one God, not many, we must find that this world is the only one this God could have created, therefore the world, with all that it contains, is necessary, not contingent.
 
This thread is giving me a headache, but I really am interested in understanding what the OP is trying to say.

Seeking Catholic, is this a fair understanding of the way you are using terms?

You define “the world” as all that exists, including God. So when you are talking about W 1, W 2 etc. you are defining them as completely separate worlds, where our God would be only be a part of the world He created, the one that includes us. Our particular God can’t have created different worlds because we are defining world as the entirety of everything that can exist, including Himself.
No, the argument doesn’t derive its validity from the definition of “world”. I could exist in W1 and W2. The argument is that God could not; the “God” who exists in W1 is a different being than the “God” who exists in W2.
Therefore, God could not have created any other worlds, because for them to be truly different worlds, and not just subsets of ours, their creator would have to be different,
Correct up to this point.
since by your definition, a world includes the creating God.
No, we can imagine all these worlds including the same creating God but different creatures. The point is this is impossible due to the simplicity of God; it wouldn’t be the same creating God but a different one.
So this would mean if we believe in one God, not many, we must find that this world is the only one this God could have created, therefore the world, with all that it contains, is necessary, not contingent.
Yes, if God’s existence is not to be contingent, then we must be necessary; for this must be the only possible world.
 
Yes, it is, if God is absolutely simple. There is no ontological distinction between the two, only an epistemic distinction. God can have no “attribute”. He is identical to His will.

A contradiction, as we’ve seen.

An absolutely simple essence can have no ontological “aspects”. You should say rather, God’s freedom of choice is identical to that essence. But then, so is how He uses that freedom.
By “aspect” I meant “an aspect as perceived by us” a la Aquinas. I used the word “aspect” precisely because it implies something seen by us rather than something that has a distinct existence within God.

As Aquinas pointed out, there is no way to talk about God at all except by using language that would normally imply that he has various “aspects”–but we must make it clear that these only relate to our knowledge of God and not to how God is in Himself.

Aquinas certainly thought that God could act in contingent ways without ceasing to be absolutely simple and without becoming contingent in any way. I suspect that he could think this because of his understanding of “movement” as the bringing from potentiality to actuality of the thing moved. We tend to think that action involves a movement of the agent, which would imply what you are saying–that God cannot act contingently without having contingency within Himself.

I don’t claim that this is wholly satisfactory or that saying “Aquinas thought X” proves that X is correct. But it should at least make us think a bit harder about the issue–clearly Aquinas didn’t think that the distinction I’ve drawn (God’s simple essence perceived by us as “will” vs. the actions that proceed from that will) was nonsensical.

Edwin

Edwin
 
Pardon me, but I think we are all getting stuck up a gum tree.
Either G_d exists, and is the creator of everything visible and invisible, or not.
If G_d exists anywhere, then G_d exists everywhere.
It is not proper though to ask if G_d exists in this universe, for the inverse is the truth: this universe exists in G_d.
G_d holds this universe, and indeed all possible universes in the palm of the hand.
G_d is NOT a denizen dwelling in this universe.
This universe is the creation of G_d.
Made from nothing but the essence of G_d.
So is of the substance of G_d.
As are all who dwell therein.
That is simplicity.
 
He would be actual in another possible world, and in **that **world (which doesn’t exist but could have) God’s knowledge would therefore be different.
SC,

I don’t see how he would be actual in another possible world, he can only be actual in the actual world, whichever that world is (and it happens to be ours).

In other words, Bob can’t be actualized unless he is actualized in W1 (ours). You can’t compare really actualized Bob’s across worlds, because there is only one world where Bob is really actualized. Right?

VC
 
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