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StephenW
Guest
The first thing that came to my mind, for some reason, was Trent defining the books that make up the OT and NT, and also that the canon of Sacred Scripture was closed. I believe this was in response to Luther who rejected what was received by the Church. Up to that point, it is my understanding, that the Church had not actually defined what was in and out of Scripture and that nothing could be added to it. What did exist were affirmations of local councils, starting in the late 300’s at Hippo, affirmations of what we hold today as the canon.it would help if you would explain “defined doctrine.”
So, theoretically, then, I suppose, one could argue that up to that point that the canon could have been changed (addition or subtraction), but in reality, I don’t think that was really possible because of the Church’s very long-standing tradition. In other words, one could argue that the constant use of these books, and no others, particular their use liturgically, for probably 1000 years by the time of Trent, would demonstrate that the Scriptures were complete and correct. That is a good argument, but nevertheless, the Church had not actually defined the canon and closed it. Thus, while the canon was universally believed/held (I presume), there was a lack of a definition.
Definitions, as they often do, settle questions and end controversies. I think it was St. Augustine that said of the pope’s response, during the pelagian conflict, “The pope has spoken, the controversy has ended.” Pelagianism, is essentially, that you can save yourself. This seems a rather self-evident error, at least to me, by just reading one of the Gospels or some of St. Paul. I mean, it seems obvious, but defining that God always takes the initiative and that ours is always a response, is to end the controversy. The Church does not go about defining doctrine for the sake of defining it. It is typically a response to some question, issue or controversy.
Probably the best way to approach the question of defined doctrine, then, is to start with a theological question and, then, research what the Church has held over the centuries. If the Fathers of the early Church all agreed on a particular question, and if too, that agreement carried on from century to century in the Church, that is a really good indication that it is true. Regardless, in the end, it is the judgment of the Church’s teaching authority. This authority finds it necessary, at certain points in history, to actually define a doctrine.
I hope this helps in some way to explain what I mean by “defined doctrine”.