"Jesus IS God!"?

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** Gabriel of 12, you have bypassed my question. Please see my post again and let me know which of these things is true, or wrong? See again. You have not replied why Jesus called God his Father.

Let us examine why Jesus used to call The God as his Father.
  1. Was it because of love of God?
  2. Was it because of fear of God?
  3. Was it because God was really his Father?
  4. Was it because he was Created by God?
  5. Was it because Jesus was begotten by God?
The Catholics should please tell which of the above is true and add any more reasons to the list as you like. Welcome. Thanks **.
Hello, 🙂
  1. Yes. He called His Father “Abba.” This is a form of endearment like “Dad.” The only time He did not call Him “Abba” was when He was praying the words of Psalm 22:1 on the cross.
  2. Code:
    No. Perfect Love casts out fear. (1 John 4:18) Jesus' love for His Father was perfect. Jesus had no fear of His Father.
  3. Code:
    Yes. (John 10:30, Matthew 10:33)
  4. Code:
    The Word of God (God the Son) existed from the beginning. He is Divine (God). He is one of the three Persons of the Godhead (Divinity) whom we call God. The other two Persons are God the Father and God the Holy Spirit. (John 1:1-5, Matthew 28:19) Jesus is the Word made flesh (John 1:14) and He was made a little lower than the angels (Hebrews 2:9) in order to have a human body so that He could die for us. He did not lose His Divinity; however, His power was limited to the "will of His Father" for every moment of His human life **before** His death on the cross. (John 5:30, Matthew 12:50, Matthew 7:21) He regains all of His power and glory after His resurrection and ascension into heaven. (Hebrews 1:1-4, Jude 1:25)
  5. Code:
    The **Word** was/is the only begotten Divine Son of God. When He also became flesh as **Jesus**; He was still a Divine being but He now has two natures: divine and human. He will be this way for all eternity since He now has an immortal body because of His resurrection and ascension from the dead. (John 20:16-17, John 5:21, Romans 8:11)
Pax,
SHW
 
Frank, read John 10:27-36 and tell me why the Jews took up stones to stone Jesus.
 
Well, that you call Him “Jesus” is logically deduced from the fact that that’s the name Yahweh gave Him. (Though I’ve noticed you prefer using Yahshua, which is cool too.) But that adds nothing to the discussion.
It certainly does add something to the discussion since you said:
"… seemed that you were saying that you only refer to Him as ‘Jesus’ and never as ‘Immanuel’.
I never said " I only refer to Him as ‘Jesus’ and never as ‘Immanuel’."

No, Father Yahweh did not give His son the name “Jesus”. This name is but a later tanslation and not an English transliteration or transciption of the name that He gave him. Father Yahweh gave his son the same name as the prophet of old Yahshua (“Joshua” eg. A.K.J.V.) Ben (son of) Nun. I use the ‘Y’ or ‘I’ sound since, “The English letter J did not come into existence until the end of medieval times.” There was also “no “J” in Hebrew, Greek or Latin.”
I’m glad you’re going to the original languages. At this point in time, though, I cannot respond to that. (I have a Greek/English NT somewhere, so then maybe that’ll help.
Greek, Hebrew Or Aramaic?
Wow, that explanation certainly is quite contrived. As I’ve heard somewhere, the original Greek literally means “The Lord of me and the God of me”. Why would Thomas switch in the middle of the sentence from Jesus to God? Seems like a stretch!!! 😉
No, it is not “a stretch!!! :)”. This is done quite often in the so called “New Testament”. Following are just a few examples of this practice of many:

To all that be in Rome, beloved of Yahweh, called to be saints: Favor to you and peace from Yahweh our Father, and the master Yahshua Messiah (Romans 1:7).

Favor be unto you, and peace, from Yahweh our Father, and from the master Yahshua Messiah (1 Corinthians 1:3; 2 Corinthians 1:2, 11:31; Galatians 1:3; Ephesians 1:2-3, 6:23; Philippians 1:2, 2:11; Colossians 1:2-3; 1 Thessalonians 1:1-3, 3:11; 2 Thessalonians 1:1-2, 8, 12, 16).
Yes, I decided to continue on the Scriptural Interpretation because you insist on talking about that. (Also because it’s a topic I know quite well.) That’s why I said “but”. As you yourself once said, “context, context, context”! :rolleyes:

Again, that Jesus is God is something that is LOGICALLY DEDUCED from Scripture.
Scriptural interpretation does not seem to be a topic you know quite well since, you believe “Jesus IS God!” and nowhere in Scripture does it ever say this. Not once! It seems to me that the only thing you know quite well is the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Churche’s” “private interpretation” of Scripture.
If you’re looking for everything to be totally spelled out the exact way you want it in the Bible, can you tell me where it says in the Bible that the Bible is our final authority ?
My stance from the very beginning has been that if the Scipture does not say it, it is not true. You seem to have a problem with me getting my doctrine for reproof and correction and instruction in righteousness from Scripture and not from your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” that you believe has the right to change Father Yahweh’s instruction in righteousness. The following passage speaks of the so called “Old Testament” since, the so called “New Testament” had not been compiled at this time.

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of Yahweh may be perfect, THROUGHLY FURNISHED unto ALL rigjhteous works (2 Timothy 3:16-17).

To the instruction and the witness, if they do not speak according to this word, there is no light in them (Isayah 8:20).

One must speak in accordance with Father Yahweh’s teaching and to the witness.

Your word is a lamp to my feet And a light to my path (Psalm 119:105).

But his delight is in the instruction of Yahweh, And in His teaching he meditates day and night (Psalm 1:2).

Now, you show me in any translation of Scripture where it says that your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” is the final authority. Father Yahweh gave his son Yahshua all authority in heaven and in earth, and not once did he ever proclaim to be “God”. Yahshua got his authority from His (and our) Father Yahweh. He taught his disciple from Father Yahweh’s instruction.

To Believe “Jesus IS God!” Is To Be Deceived!

Did Yahshua Create?
 
I’m sorry to be frank, Frank (no pun intended), but you’ve been deceived. You want to believe that everything in Scripture has to be written out the exact way you want it. That’s false. We must use logic when interpreting the Holy Bible.
No, I do not believe that everything in Scripture has to be written out the exact way that I want it. Scripture is written out the way it is. I believe that we must use logic when iinterpreting Scripture. It is only logical to believe that Scripture interprets itself and should not be the private interpretation of your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church”.
No doubt this will cause anger with you, but I’m just speaking what I think is the truth. As scripture says, “The Truth shall set you free.” The truth is in the Catholic Church, my friend.
Scripture does say “The truth shall set you free.” and that Father Yahweh’s word is truth, not the word of the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” Nowhere in Scripture does it teach "The truth is in the Catholic Church, my friend.
Oh, and to answer your question, I consider myself to be pretty much Catholic, even though officially I’m not yet. I guess you could say I’m as Catholic as one can get without the Sacraments. I hope this message isn’t too long.
No, I can not say that you “are as Catholic as one can get without the Sacraments.”

I say you are deceived by the doctrines of men who are inspired by demons. Yes, too long you have been spewing out so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” lies when you yourself are not even offically Catholic by your own admittion. For one to be as Catholic as one can get, they must be offically Catholic. You are nothing but a wanna be Catholic.

To Believe “Jesus IS God!” Is To Be Deceived!

Did Yahshua Create?
 
Gabriel of 12;

Boy, Iam sure glad you cleared that up, Kepha is not your paternal father, nor your heavenly father:thumbsup: If you think Cathoilcs believe this, you have a miscontrued view of the Roman Catholic church. I hope we do agree that Jesus gave Simon Bar Jona that name Kepha = Rock, and Jesus did not just call Simon Bar Jona’s faith Kepha as most non catholics and protestants misinterpret Mathew 16:14-18.🙂 Would you agree to Jesus statement in renaming Simon Bar Jona’s name to “Kepha” = Rock?
I never said that the Catholic Church believed this. I am in no way in agreement (one accord) with you.

Do you say Peter is the first Pope? If so, maybe you can explain the following passage:

From that time Jesus began to shew to his disciples, that he must go to Jerusalem, and suffer many things from the ancients and scribes and chief priests, and be put to death, and the third day rise again. And Peter taking him, began to rebuke him, saying: Lord, be it far from thee, this shall not be unto thee. Who turning, said to Peter: Go behind me, Satan, thou art a scandal unto me: because thou savourest not the things that are of God, but the things that are of men. ([A Catholic translation]).
 
Frank4YAHWEH;4928619:
Gabriel of 12:

Frank, some one has duped you into teaching these false translation interpretations here; If you believe that Thomas was a Jew, Jesus was a Jew and when Thomas spoke the name of God in public, if he was not addressing God in his speech, then any other way you propose or distort his speech becomes in “Vain” a mortal sin.

And Yes you are correct Thomas did not speak God’s name in “Vain” because Thomas addressed his name correctly to Jesus. Any other way you put it, outside this context, it becomes God’s name in vain a violation of Exodus 20:7 Commandment.
No, I do not believe that Thomas and Yahshua were a Jews. There is no prohibition in speaking Father Yahweh’s Name in public. This is false teaching of the Jews. To speak Father Yahweh’s Name IN VAIN is a violation of Exodus 20:7. To simply call upon His Name is not a violation of Father Yahweh’s commandments. In fact, Scripture instructs us to to set apart (“hallow {make holy}, sanctify”), revere (“fear”), remember, think upon, wait upon, walk in, trust in, love, seek, declare (proclaim), bless, publish, call upon, sing unto, praise, esteem (“glorify”), make known (“manifest”), and know His Name.

The Name Yahweh

To Believe “Jesus IS God!” Is To Be Deceived!

Did Yahshua Create?
 
It certainly does add something to the discussion since you said:

I never said " I only refer to Him as ‘Jesus’ and never as ‘Immanuel’."

No, Father Yahweh did not give His son the name “Jesus”. This name is but a later tanslation and not an English transliteration or transciption of the name that He gave him. Father Yahweh gave his son the same name as the prophet of old Yahshua (“Joshua” eg. A.K.J.V.) Ben (son of) Nun. I use the ‘Y’ or ‘I’ sound since, “The English letter J did not come into existence until the end of medieval times.” There was also “no “J” in Hebrew, Greek or Latin.”

Greek, Hebrew Or Aramaic?

No, it is not “a stretch!!! :)”. This is done quite often in the so called “New Testament”. Following are just a few examples of this practice of many:

To all that be in Rome, beloved of Yahweh, called to be saints: Favor to you and peace from Yahweh our Father, and the master Yahshua Messiah (Romans 1:7).

Favor be unto you, and peace, from Yahweh our Father, and from the master Yahshua Messiah (1 Corinthians 1:3; 2 Corinthians 1:2, 11:31; Galatians 1:3; Ephesians 1:2-3, 6:23; Philippians 1:2, 2:11; Colossians 1:2-3; 1 Thessalonians 1:1-3, 3:11; 2 Thessalonians 1:1-2, 8, 12, 16).

Scriptural interpretation does not seem to be a topic you know quite well since, you believe “Jesus IS God!” and nowhere in Scripture does it ever say this. Not once! It seems to me that the only thing you know quite well is the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Churche’s” “private interpretation” of Scripture.

My stance from the very beginning has been that if the Scipture does not say it, it is not true. You seem to have a problem with me getting my doctrine for reproof and correction and instruction in righteousness from Scripture and not from your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” that you believe has the right to change Father Yahweh’s instruction in righteousness. The following passage speaks of the so called “Old Testament” since, the so called “New Testament” had not been compiled at this time.

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of Yahweh may be perfect, THROUGHLY FURNISHED unto ALL rigjhteous works (2 Timothy 3:16-17).

To the instruction and the witness, if they do not speak according to this word, there is no light in them (Isayah 8:20).

One must speak in accordance with Father Yahweh’s teaching and to the witness.

Your word is a lamp to my feet And a light to my path (Psalm 119:105).

But his delight is in the instruction of Yahweh, And in His teaching he meditates day and night (Psalm 1:2).

Now, you show me in any translation of Scripture where it says that your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” is the final authority. Father Yahweh gave his son Yahshua all authority in heaven and in earth, and not once did he ever proclaim to be “God”. Yahshua got his authority from His (and our) Father Yahweh. He taught his disciple from Father Yahweh’s instruction.

To Believe “Jesus IS God!” Is To Be Deceived!

Did Yahshua Create?
Yeah, I misinterpreted what you said. But really, when it comes to Jesus being God, how does the whole Jesus/Yahshua thing thing help? If you want to do that, please start a new thread.

The point of that was, Jesus was “called” Immanuel. That means “God With Us”. (I’ve got my interlinear NT here) Literally, “With Us the God”. The word there is ‘ho theos’, which always refers to Yahweh. I dare you to find any part of the NT where ‘ho theos’ is used to talk about someone other than Yahweh. It’s clear: Jesus truly is “God With Us”, because that’s what Immanuel means!!!

Well, sorry, but those verses say that Scripture is extremely important. NOWHERE does the Bible say “The Bible is the final authority”!!!
 
No, I do not believe that everything in Scripture has to be written out the exact way that I want it. Scripture is written out the way it is. I believe that we must use logic when iinterpreting Scripture. It is only logical to believe that Scripture interprets itself and should not be the private interpretation of your so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church”.

Scripture does say “The truth shall set you free.” and that Father Yahweh’s word is truth, not the word of the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” Nowhere in Scripture does it teach "The truth is in the Catholic Church, my friend.

No, I can not say that you “are as Catholic as one can get without the Sacraments.”

I say you are deceived by the doctrines of men who are inspired by demons. Yes, too long you have been spewing out so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” lies when you yourself are not even offically Catholic by your own admittion. For one to be as Catholic as one can get, they must be offically Catholic. You are nothing but a wanna be Catholic.

To Believe “Jesus IS God!” Is To Be Deceived!

Did Yahshua Create?
Yikes, Frank. Where in scripture does it say that “The Holy Roman Catholic Church has lies”?

Really though, that hurts. Personal attacks do not help the discussion. I’m as “Catholic” as one can get, WITHOUT SACRAMENTS not in general. I desire greatly to be Catholic, but in my current position, that is no option.

Sorry, Frank, but I think that both Father Yahweh and Yahshua would frown upon your personal attacks. 😦

God Bless.
 
Frank4YAHWEH;4929476:
I believe I said “I refer to the Messiah by the name that Father Yahweh gave His son.”

I never said “Calling Jesus “Immanuel” does anything to his Holy Name.” Nowhere in Scripture does it say “Jesus truly was “God With Us”, because he is God.”

Maybe you would like to accuse Yahshua of vanity!

Jesus cried with a loud voice
, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" (Mark 15:34 A.K.J.V.)

Gabriel of 12;

Good point Frank, but you missed the boat, when Jesus cried out he was truly calling to God the Father, Not crying out in vain as you falsely claim Thomas doing. When Thomas worshipped Jesus in front of him, not cried out and said "My Lord “AND” my God. For some unknown reason you keep missing the “AND”. Thomas was speaking directly to God the Son, not in vain, Just as Jesus was crying out directly to God the Father, not in a vain expression as you and your sources falsely interpret.

No, it is you that have missed the boat! I never said Thomas or Yahshua was crying out IN VAIN to Father Yahweh. No, it does not say that Thomas was speaking directly to “God the Son”. The phrase “God the Son” is never mentioned in this passage and in fact, is never mentioned anywhere in any translation of the Scripture that I am aware of. I do not keep missing the “AND”. In fact, in my previous posts I have made the word “AND” in bold font in this passage. I would say you missed that!
 
Yikes, Frank. Where in scripture does it say that “The Holy Roman Catholic Church has lies”?

Really though, that hurts. Personal attacks do not help the discussion. I’m as “Catholic” as one can get, WITHOUT SACRAMENTS not in general. I desire greatly to be Catholic, but in my current position, that is no option.

Sorry, Frank, but I think that both Father Yahweh and Yahshua would frown upon your personal attacks. 😦

God Bless.
I never said that it says in the Scripture “The Holy Roman Catholic Church has lies.” It is just obvious to me that the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” teaches lies concerning Yahshua in that they falsely and deceptively teach the doctrine that he is “God” when Scripture teaches no such doctrine. I believe one must teach in accordance with what the Scripture teaches, not in accordance with whatt the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Church” teaches as you do.

You are the one who openly admitted that you were not officially Catholic, and it is quite obvious to me from what you have said in your post that you a Catholic wanna be. If I were against those who justly made personal attacks against someone, I would have to be against Yahshua in making personal attacks in calling certain people "hypocrites, fools, swine, dogs, and in saying that they were of their father the devil.
 
** Gabriel of 12, you have bypassed my question. Please see my post again and let me know which of these things is true, or wrong? See again. You have not replied why Jesus called God his Father.

Let us examine why Jesus used to call The God as his Father.
  1. Was it because of love of God?
  2. Was it because of fear of God?
  3. Was it because God was really his Father?
  4. Was it because he was Created by God?
  5. Was it because Jesus was begotten by God?
The Catholics should please tell which of the above is true and add any more reasons to the list as you like. Welcome. Thanks **.
Gabriel of 12;

Sorry I thought I answered your question from a Catholic perspective. Jesus called God his Father because Jesus was the Son of God:)

All these things you listed pertain to Jesus and the Father, but not one of these (individually) suffices the question you ask? only that Jesus is the Son of God.
 
Jesus’ cry "Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Was prophesied and was fulfilled for a reason.
Psa 27:9 Hide not thy face [far] from me; put not thy servant away in anger: thou hast been my help; leave me not, neither forsake me, O God of my salvation.

Jesus had to…descend into hell…and the answer to save Him from descending into hell was answered with silence.

While in hell it is noted: Isa 14:16 They that see thee shall narrowly look upon thee, [and] consider thee, [saying, Is] this the man that made the earth to tremble, that did shake kingdoms;

These are they which were visited:Isa 24:22 And they shall be gathered together, [as] prisoners are gathered in the pit, and shall be shut up in the prison, and after many days shall they be visited. The pit? Isa 14:15 Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell, to the sides of the pit.

Psa 28:1 [A Psalm] of David.]] Unto thee will I cry, O LORD my rock; be not silent to me: lest, [if] thou be silent to me, **I become like them that go down into the pit.

It is not a question whether Jesus was talking to the Father,but rather the fulfillment of prophecy, because as God, He alone cold save the souls He went to visit.

Can anybody but God have the power to save that which was lost in the making?

If your answer is Yes, then there is no question that Jesus was God, is God and always be God!

Blessings, AJ
**
 
This subject can not be resolved by integrating a religious belief, whether Catholic or Protestant.
But rather, the picture of the works of God in the whole of the bible.

Blessings>>>AJ
 
I voted for “All of the above” but I must admit that the third option has me thoroughly confused.
 
Yeah, I misinterpreted what you said. But really, when it comes to Jesus being God, how does the whole Jesus/Yahshua thing thing help? If you want to do that, please start a new thread.

The point of that was, Jesus was “called” Immanuel. That means “God With Us”. (I’ve got my interlinear NT here) Literally, “With Us the God”. The word there is ‘ho theos’, which always refers to Yahweh. I dare you to find any part of the NT where ‘ho theos’ is used to talk about someone other than Yahweh. It’s clear: Jesus truly is “God With Us”, because that’s what Immanuel means!!!

Well, sorry, but those verses say that Scripture is extremely important. NOWHERE does the Bible say “The Bible is the final authority”!!!
I was simply making it clear that I do not refer to the true Messiah by the name “Jesus”. This most certainly was not his given name.

The word ho theos simply means ‘the god’. Check out 2 Corinthians 4:4 where ho theos is in reference to Satan.

NOWHERE does the Bible say “The Holy Roman Catholic Church” is the final authority"!!! They do not have the authority to change Father Yahweh’s word. Father Yahweh does not change!

For I am Yahweh, I change not … (Malakyah 3:6).

Scripture only says that ALL authority was given unto Yahshua by his (and our) Father Yahweh. Father Yahweh is the Author of His Own word and Yahshua was the spokesman of Father Yahweh’s word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
 
Well, sorry, but those verses say that Scripture is extremely important.
I choose Father Yahweh’s word as authority and importants over the so called “Holy Roman Catholic Churches” words. In no way will the H.R.C.C. ever dictate what it is that I believe! 😛

Something’s Fishy!
 
Whether I’m officially Catholic or not doesn’t matter. Jesus only used words such as “hypocrites” and “fools” when it was relevant to the argument, i.e., when they were using hypocritical teachings. If I’m Catholic or not means nothing. It has nothing to do with the Trinity. It is an ad hominem argument. Please stay in the discussion.

Now, “ho theos” is a title of God. It literally means “The God”. Pretty much any place where it’s a reference to Yahweh, it’s “ho theos”. This is proven by the NT text. Take, just one example, Mark 12:30: “And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? -which being translated is, My God, My God [ho theos], why did You forsake Me?-” We know “ho theos” is used as a title because being translated as, “My the God” simply wouldn’t work. It really means “My Yahweh”.
Then there’s also “theos”. It’s not a title, and doesn’t always refer to Yahweh.

Looking at the structure of 2 Cor. 4:4, it’s clear that Paul is not writing that Satan is “The God (TITLE) of this world.” He’s writing that Satan is “The god (theos-- not used as a title.)” Because of the words “of this world”, “ho” just has to be put before “theos”. It’s the way the structure and the grammar works. We figure this out by context. Jesus was always called “The God (TITLE)”. There is nothing about the way Jesus was called “The God” that suggests that he was only a god, not the God.

As for the Catholic Church, give Matthew 16 a try. Also see that Paul’s Traditions were considered as authoritative as the Bible (They’ve been passed down through the Church.):

“Now I praise you, brethren, that in all things you are mindful of me: and keep my ordinances as I have delivered them to you.”
1 Cor. 11:2

“In the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, we command you, brothers, to keep away from every brother who is idle and does not live according to the teaching you received from us.”
-2 Thess. 3:6

“So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the teachings we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter.”
-2 Thess. 2:15

God Bless.
 
Hello, 🙂
  1. Yes. He called His Father “Abba.” This is a form of endearment like “Dad.” The only time He did not call Him “Abba” was when He was praying the words of Psalm 22:1 on the cross.
  2. Code:
    No. Perfect Love casts out fear. (1 John 4:18) Jesus' love for His Father was perfect. Jesus had no fear of His Father.
  3. Code:
    Yes. (John 10:30, Matthew 10:33)
  4. Code:
    The Word of God (God the Son) existed from the beginning. He is Divine (God). He is one of the three Persons of the Godhead (Divinity) whom we call God. The other two Persons are God the Father and God the Holy Spirit. (John 1:1-5, Matthew 28:19) Jesus is the Word made flesh (John 1:14) and He was made a little lower than the angels (Hebrews 2:9) in order to have a human body so that He could die for us. He did not lose His Divinity; however, His power was limited to the "will of His Father" for every moment of His human life **before** His death on the cross. (John 5:30, Matthew 12:50, Matthew 7:21) He regains all of His power and glory after His resurrection and ascension into heaven. (Hebrews 1:1-4, Jude 1:25)
  5. Code:
    The **Word** was/is the only begotten Divine Son of God. When He also became flesh as **Jesus**; He was still a Divine being but He now has two natures: divine and human. He will be this way for all eternity since He now has an immortal body because of His resurrection and ascension from the dead. (John 20:16-17, John 5:21, Romans 8:11)
Pax,
SHW
SHW, Thanks for your reply. You have replied to three questions (only) very well. But it appears that you had difficulty in replying to question number 4 and 5. I assume that reply to those two questions (No. 4 and No. 5) Is NO. ??? Could you try to see the questions again and make a reply please?
 
SHW, Thanks for your reply. You have replied to three questions (only) very well. But it appears that you had difficulty in replying to question number 4 and 5. I assume that reply to those two questions (No. 4 and No. 5) Is NO. ??? Could you try to see the questions again and make a reply please?

Let us examine why Jesus used to call The God as his Father.
  1. Was it because he was Created by God?
  2. Was it because Jesus was begotten by God?
Hi, 🙂
  1. This cannot be answered by a strict yes or no. “Created” means “made” in this example. Jesus was “made flesh” by the power of the Holy Spirit who is God but He is not the Father. But the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father (and the Son/Word.) He is their Power. (Luke 1:35)
  2. Yes. Jesus was “begotten” by His Father God but Jesus always existed from the beginning. (John 1:1-4)
The Trinity is very difficult to understand. I do not comprehend the Trinity in its entirety and no one on earth is able to. This is why it is called a “Divine Mystery.” It cannot be comprehended by our finite minds. The Three Persons of the Blessed Trinity are separate Persons yet they are also only one God. (There are scholars who comprehend this mystery much better than I do but I do not know if any of them are on this forum.)

We accept by faith what we do not understand. The Church teaches that the names of the three Persons of the one God are: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit because this is what Jesus called Them. (Matthew 28:19) Jesus was sent by His Father to teach us. (John 14:9, John 14:6, John 10:30, John 1:18)

Pax,
SHW
 
It may help to:

Think of the Father as the “Thought” or “Will” of God.
Think of the Son as the Verbal “Word” or “Command” of God.
Think of the Holy Spirit as the “Action” or “Power” of God. He carries out both the will/thought of the Father and the word/command of the Son. This is why He proceeds from both the Father and the Son. (John 14:26, John 15:26, John 16:7-15)

They (Three Persons of the Blessed Trinity) all work together to accomplish Their purposes/plans as the one God. They are all equal to each other. They are always and forevermore in perfect undivided unity because They all desire the same thing at the same time. (Genesis 1:26)

Thought (Father) + Word (Son) + Action (Holy Spirit) = God (Blessed Trinity).

Please see members.cox.net/studyhisword/HolyTrinity.pdf for more information.

Pax,
SHW
 
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