H
Hastrman
Guest
No, because had he meant, “I am he that was around before Abraham,” he would have said exactly that–Greek explicitly marks its relative constructions (Semitic languages do too, though less explicitly). Greek is not a figurative or vague language–it has two words for “and”! Your interpretation would only work with very bizarre diction that, aside from rendering the statement meaningless, cannot possibly be justified by reference to any Indo-European or Semitic literature.Jesus was just talking about his Melchizedek priesthood which was around ministering before Abram became Abraham – I am him that you wait for, Messiah who is after Melchizedek. I don’t see where what you say discounts that. Same way the blind man explained who he was.
Also, he did at other times explicitly make reference to the Melchizedek priesthood. If he’d wanted them to have that understanding, they would have. Unless the one *you *accept as God’s Moshiach was so stupid he couldn’t get himself understood by anybody but one person two millennia later, writing on internet forums.
But please, explain to me why your interpretation, based on the English text, is more authoritative than that of people fluent in Koine Greek reading the original text. And why those hearing it had the reaction they had: they tried to stone him as a blasphemer, because he arrogated the Holy Name unto himself. He probably spoke the sentence in Aramaic, and I guarantee you the Pharisees understood that better than you do, if you speak it at all. They wrote the Talmud in it not a hundred years later, after all.
Would you be so kind as to discuss the use of emphatic and construct states in possessive constructions as they occur at various stages of the Aramaic language?
PS: Some Jewish member of this forum, say Valke2, sorry to drag you into this, but I need some backup on something. Faith of Abraham’s interpretation of Torah, and the Moshiach, is very far from being the normal Jewish one, isn’t it? Aside from his accepting Jesus as the Messiah, I mean.