Logical Case for Papal Authority?

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Once the pope issues an infallible statement, that statement becomes irreformable. Subject to no other appeal or authority. Not my words but the Church’s. (look at post 105 which you agree to). What makes the statement infallible? it’s due to Jesus promise to Peter, that the HS assisting the pope like He promised Peter, it’s not the pope as an individual making the statement, but as Jesus promised to Peter as the teacher of the entire Church helped by the HS. In THAT case the statement is irreformable. (see #105)

In addition to what I already said in response to your post here #284

I would just add that while you refer to Michael Whelton, who is an Orthodox writer, all the ECF’s I posted in my response to you, (by your request) are all before there is such a thing as Eastern Orthodoxy. The span of time those ECF’s that I quoted for you spans, is the first 500 years. Since it is your point that you raise, please find for me in that same 1st 500 year period of time, where “Orthodox Church” appears in writing and quote it for me properly referenced… If you can’t do that for me don’t bring it up again.

To further make my point, In the 4th century, both Nicean councils in the 300’s made the “One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church” an article of faith. There WAS no “Orthodox Church” then. That should narrow down your search.

As for absolutist,

There is no such view in the Catholic Church for a petrine view nor the definition.

The Church is 2000 years old. Either name the actual example properly referenced that you want to present, or stop the silly what-ifs.

Cyprian never went against the following.

"to set sail and to bear letters from schismatic and profane persons to the throne of Peter, and to the chief church whence priestly unity takes its source; and not to consider that these were the Romans whose faith was praised in the preaching of the apostle, to whom faithlessness could have no access**."**Epistle 54 http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050654.htm

Cyprian got wrapped around the axle with Pope Stephen over rebaptism of heretics, and pope Stephens position prevailed. We’ve already been over this.

I answer each question of yours and it’s always something else. Reminds me of a situation that Irenaeus had with the gnostics

Bk 3 Chapter 2 vs 2-3
  1. But, again, when we refer them to that tradition which originates from the apostles, [and] which is preserved by means of the succession of presbyters in the Churches, they object to tradition, saying that they themselves are wiser not merely than the presbyters, but even than the apostles, because they have discovered the unadulterated truth. For [they maintain] that the apostles intermingled the things of the law with the words of the Saviour; and that not the apostles alone, but even the Lord Himself, spoke as at one time from the Demiurge, at another from the intermediate place, and yet again from the Pleroma, but that they themselves, indubitably, unsulliedly, and purely, have knowledge of the hidden mystery: this is, indeed, to blaspheme their Creator after a most impudent manner! It comes to this, therefore, that these men do now consent neither to Scripture nor to tradition.
  2. Such are the adversaries with whom we have to deal, my very dear friend, endeavouring like slippery serpents to escape at all points. Where-fore they must be opposed at all points, if per-chance, by cutting off their retreat, we may succeed in turning them back to the truth. For, though it is not an easy thing for a soul under the influence of error to repent, yet, on the other hand, it is not altogether impossible to escape from error when the truth is brought alongside it.
Steve…Show me where Jesus promises infallibility to Peter and NOT also to the other apostles? I am sure you will admit Jesus did promise infallibility to the Apostles…So show me WHERE Jesus conditions that infallibility on being in communion with Peter? Where does he say that? He never does.
 
Dear jinc,
I am sorry but you are totally wrong on this point. The Catholic Church has held on numerous occasions that the separation of church and state FOR ANY COUNTRY is wrong and that anyone who believes it will be anathematized. See the Syllabus of Errors in 1864 if you don’t believe me. Further, your argument that this must somehow be related to the Vatican being its own country is also totally false SINCE the Vatican became its own country in the 20th century, around 70 years AFTER the Syllabus of Errors was written by Pope Pius.
The Catholic Church has never given up the teaching that EVERY country is bound to follow the laws of God as proposed by the Church. The Church has publicly opposed every immoral laws set by any State. This is the dogma of the Church. In the middle ages, the Church was commonly and irrevocably mixed in with the State, since the State often worked under the notion of “divine-right rule.” In today’s world, there are hardly any “divine-right rulers” (except, I think, the Pope for the Vatican State).

So the Church’s teaching that the Church and State cannot be separated was interpreted by those in the Middle Ages to mean that the Church is involved in the POLITICS of a State - particularly in the elevation and deposition of rulers. That interpretation is not the dogma of the teaching “no separation of Church and State.” The dogma of that teaching, rather, is the notion that every State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church. If the State establishes laws opposed to God’s laws, you can bet the Church will do all she can to oppose it (in adherence to the dogma that the State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church). I’m sure you will agree that this is the case today (in areas such abortion, gay marriage, destruction of life, euthanasia, etc., etc., etc,). The Church today certainly no longer has the kind of political power she possessed in the Middle Ages, but she still very much maintains the dogma that the State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Once the pope issues an infallible statement, that statement becomes irreformable. Subject to no other appeal or authority. Not my words but the Church’s. (look at post 105 which you agree to). What makes the statement infallible? it’s due to Jesus promise to Peter, that the HS assisting the pope like He promised Peter, it’s not the pope as an individual making the statement, but as Jesus promised to Peter as the teacher of the entire Church helped by the HS. In THAT case the statement is irreformable. (see #105)

In addition to what I already said in response to your post here #284

I would just add that while you refer to Michael Whelton, who is an Orthodox writer, all the ECF’s I posted in my response to you, (by your request) are all before there is such a thing as Eastern Orthodoxy. The span of time those ECF’s that I quoted for you spans, is the first 500 years. Since it is your point that you raise, please find for me in that same 1st 500 year period of time, where “Orthodox Church” appears in writing and quote it for me properly referenced… If you can’t do that for me don’t bring it up again.

To further make my point, In the 4th century, both Nicean councils in the 300’s made the “One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church” an article of faith. There WAS no “Orthodox Church” then. That should narrow down your search.

As for absolutist,

There is no such view in the Catholic Church for a petrine view nor the definition.

The Church is 2000 years old. Either name the actual example properly referenced that you want to present, or stop the silly what-ifs.

Cyprian never went against the following.

"to set sail and to bear letters from schismatic and profane persons to the throne of Peter, and to the chief church whence priestly unity takes its source; and not to consider that these were the Romans whose faith was praised in the preaching of the apostle, to whom faithlessness could have no access**."**Epistle 54 http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050654.htm

Cyprian got wrapped around the axle with Pope Stephen over rebaptism of heretics, and pope Stephens position prevailed. We’ve already been over this.

I answer each question of yours and it’s always something else. Reminds me of a situation that Irenaeus had with the gnostics

Bk 3 Chapter 2 vs 2-3
  1. But, again, when we refer them to that tradition which originates from the apostles, [and] which is preserved by means of the succession of presbyters in the Churches, they object to tradition, saying that they themselves are wiser not merely than the presbyters, but even than the apostles, because they have discovered the unadulterated truth. For [they maintain] that the apostles intermingled the things of the law with the words of the Saviour; and that not the apostles alone, but even the Lord Himself, spoke as at one time from the Demiurge, at another from the intermediate place, and yet again from the Pleroma, but that they themselves, indubitably, unsulliedly, and purely, have knowledge of the hidden mystery: this is, indeed, to blaspheme their Creator after a most impudent manner! It comes to this, therefore, that these men do now consent neither to Scripture nor to tradition.
  2. Such are the adversaries with whom we have to deal, my very dear friend, endeavouring like slippery serpents to escape at all points. Where-fore they must be opposed at all points, if per-chance, by cutting off their retreat, we may succeed in turning them back to the truth. For, though it is not an easy thing for a soul under the influence of error to repent, yet, on the other hand, it is not altogether impossible to escape from error when the truth is brought alongside it.
AND…Just to prove the fact that your understanding of Cyprian is TOTALLY FALSE…here is just ONE of many quotes that disprove your assertion:

“For neither does any of us set himself up as a bishop of bishops, not by tyrannical terror does any compel his colleague to the necessity of obedience; since every bishop, according to the allowance of his liberty and power, has his own proper right of judgment, and can no more be judged by another than himself can judge another. But let us all wait for the judgment of our Lord Jesus Christ, who is the only one that has the power both of preferring us in the government of His Church, and of judging us in our conduct there.” St. Cyprian in his Address to the Seventh Council of Carthage
 
any promise relating to infallibility to Peter was also given to the other Apostles,
Well said. As the official Relatio of Vatican 1 stated, the infallibility of the Church was not given to Peter alone and from there distributed to the others, but rather that infallibility was given to the whole Magisterium.
which is why Christ said, “When 2 or 3 are gathered in my name, I am there with them.” How can he be if those “2 or 3” are apostles or successors to the apostles who disagree with the teaching of Peter? You have yet to explain why the promises made to the other Apostles are conditional and purely dependent on Peter, when we have ABSOLUTELY NO EVIDENCE to suggest Jesus said anything like that.
I read through his statements, and Cathoholic did not say “the promises made to the other Apostles are conditional and purely dependent on Peter.” The teaching is that infallibility is promised to the whole body of bishops together, not individually or separately. Not even the Pope has an “individual” infallibility separated from the Church or the College. What the Pope can do is exercise the infallibility of the Church PERSONALLY in an EXTRAordinary manner. But this in NO WAY means he is detached from the infallibility of the universal ORDINARY Magisterium possessed by the College, nor the infallibility of the Church as a whole, when he is personally exercising the infallibility in that extraordinary manner. It is not the concept of one being dependent on the other, but the idea of infallibility invested in the whole. The only one on Whom the Church actually depends for infallibility is God Himself and God alone.
All this talk about Keys and authority is meaningless when you are talking about infallibility,
Agreed. In fact, Pastor Aeternus does not mention the keys in the Chapter on Infallibility, but only in the chapter on the Primacy.
but even on the issue of authority, the passages you cite really don’t defend your position either since there is ample evidence from the early church that many early fathers, such as St. Cyprian, believed the keys given to Peter have been vested in ALL BISHOPS.
I agree with you here, but I think you might be misinterpreting brother Cathoholic.

Blessings
 
Dear Jinc,

I’m sure you have already noticed the strange mindset of Absolutist Petrine advocates. They say that the Pope does not have absolute power, but whenever anyone else but them says it, they will immediately challenge it.🤷

So do not rest easy just because they make the claim to agree that the Pope “does not have absolute power.” In fact, Absolutist Petrine advocates mean something different from how the rest of the world would understand that statement. Absolutist Petrine advocates make the claim only in relation to God. They will say things like “of course the Pope does not have absolute power, because only God has absolute power.” In truth, in relation to the rest of the world, Absolutist Petrine advocates do indeed believe that the Pope has absolute power. This is, however, not the High Petrine teaching of the Catholic Church.

Continue to combat the errors of the Absolutist Petrine advocates. You will have many Catholics on your side - not to mention the ecclesiastical Magisterium:). Of course, there still seems to be one or two things about the papacy that is preventing you from becoming Catholic. I suppose only prayer can help at that point.

Blessings
Dear Marduk,
Your efforts have certainly not been in vain. You have made a tremendous impact on me in a way few others have over the past three years. I greatly appreciate your time and wisdom on these matters.

The one obstacle for me that remains is precisely what Catholicity alluded to earlier…If the Pope and a small minority of bishops say one thing is true, and the overwhelming majority of all other bishops say another thing is true (including all other traditional patriarchs)…Who has authority? How can the vast majority of the Church be against the Pope and the Pope still be right and still be considered part of the Magisterium? This is something I struggle with greatly. I find it hard to believe that the majority of bishops (and even laity) could be wrong about an issue but the Pope and a small minority could be right when the best test for Tradition is what the Church as a whole believes.
 
Dear brother Cathoholic,

I’d already responded to the rest of your post in my post#311.
But the Pope (the Bishop of Rome), can act on his own accord to define and preserve doctrinal truth too. He is not subject to a democratic process; even a democratic process with the other Bishops.

You might say: “Well he shouldn’t do that.” Fine if you want to think that.

But you cannot say: “He cannot do that!”

The Pope CAN do that.
I absolutely disagree with this. Show me a single Magisterial document that states “the Pope can act of his own accord.” In opposition to this statement, our Canons state the Primacy is only exercised “in accord with the needs of the Church.” The idea that the Pope’s exercise of the primacy depends solely on what he wants is certainly not Catholic teaching. If the Pope is only acting of his own accord, he is abusing his authority and we need not follow him, particularly if his commands are tearing down the Church.

I don’t know why you keep bringing up the “democratic process” straw man in relation to infallible decrees. A “democratic process” by definition means the wielder of power obtains his power from the will of the people. That is not the teaching of the Church. The Popes and bishops obtain their power directly from God, but the divine constitution of the Church constrains the Pope and bishops to work together for the good of the Church, not independently.
It would be the heresy of Gallicanism (also known as the heresy of “Conciliarism”) to say the Pope couldn’t act of his own accord to PRESERVE doctrine.
If you want to accuse the Church herself of Gallicanism, that’s up to you.
I already talked about the heresy of Gallicanism here.
Yes, you did, because you had not read the entire thread and merely assumed things about what I stated that were not true, and were already covered earlier in the thread.

Blessings
 
jinc1019 #316
When has the Pope EVER said that he can teach something that is not ALREADY part of the Apostolic faith? When?
This question shows the confusion present, but enables the realization that Christ has provided His Church with His Supreme Vicar who is charged with approving and promulgating all definitions to develop the understanding of the truths given to His Church.

It fails to appreciate the many doctrinal and dogmatic Magisterial definitions which have had to be promulgated so as to bind the faithful to the reality of the truth.
#319
Show me where Jesus promises infallibility to Peter and NOT also to the other apostles? I am sure you will admit Jesus did promise infallibility to the Apostles…So show me WHERE Jesus conditions that infallibility on being in communion with Peter? Where does he say that? He never does.
After the reality of Peter’s primacy and infallibility (post #283) how obtuse to continue in the fantasy that the other Apostles taught anything contrary to communion with St Peter their head!

Show where that fantasy occurs.

We are specifically taught that Peter led the meeting which elected the first successor to an Apostle (Acts 1:13-26).
 
mardukm #324
Show me a single Magisterial document that states “the Pope can act of his own accord.”
How obtuse!

Ad infinitum:
thus denying the truth from Vatican I, and Vatican II, Lumen Gentium 25, that the Popes’, “definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly styled irreformable, since they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, promised to him in blessed Peter, and therefore they need no approval of others, nor do they allow an appeal to any other judgment.”

That act of defining a truth is not conditional on the approval of others.
 
Mardukm. You said (regarding the Papacy, authority, and the faith and morals issue):
I absolutely disagree with this. Show me a single Magisterial document that states “the Pope can act of his own accord.” In opposition to this statement, our Canons state the Primacy is only exercised “in accord with the needs of the Church.” The idea that the Pope’s exercise of the primacy depends solely on what he wants is certainly not Catholic teaching.
The way you are presenting that is utter non-sense.

I have taken great pains to say the Pope CANNOT act of his own accord concerning Apostolic teaching.

But I have also taken great pains to say he CAN act of his own accord in PRESERVING Apostolic teachings too.

Nobody here is saying:

“Oh yes! The pope can act outside of the needs of the Church!”

Nobody. Nobody.

And nobody here is saying:

OH YES! The Pope gets to act of his own accord in the sense of CHANGING doctrine!"

As I said, the fact that you keep proverbially putting these words on my keyboard, suggests weakness to your argument.

Why not deal with the issue? Why not deal with the issue of the paradigm of authority?

You said:
A “democratic process” by definition means the wielder of power obtains his power from the will of the people.
OK. Fine. Then change that to a “democratic Episcopal process”, change it to an “Episcopal majority”, change it to whatever you want, but you know exactly what I mean and you have NOT addressed the issue. Not ONCE.

That’s exactly WHY jinc1019 can ask:
The one obstacle for me that remains is precisely what Catholicity alluded to earlier…If the Pope and a small minority of bishops say one thing is true, and the overwhelming majority of all other bishops say another thing is true (including all other traditional patriarchs)…Who has authority?
What’s the answer to that question Mardukm?

You got 101 bishops with a hotly contested issue. You as a layman are not sure. There are people going both ways on the issue all around you too.

What’s the answer Mardukm?

Bishop of Rome + 15 other Bishops say one thing is PRESERVING Apostolic doctrine.

**The other 85 Bishops say something else diametrically opposed is PRESERVING Apostolic doctrine. **

Who do you go with Mardukm?

A. I go with the consensus of the Magisterium that is the POPE AND the Bishops in UNION with the Pope (the Bishop of Rome + the 15 other Bishops).

B. I go with the consensus of the majority of Bishops (the 85 dissenting Bishops). A sort of “democracy” among the Bishops themselves.

C. I go with whatever doctrine the Bishop of my diocese states even though he differs from the Pope. Even though the Bishop of the next diocese over, sides with the Pope et. al.

I just affirm “all Bishops are really autocephalous". Truth is kind of nebulous and “mystical” anyway, except when we disagree with Rome. THEN truth is ABSOLUTE. We need some “mystery”. It is not good to think we can have absolute truth.

D. I pull out my Bible and come up with whatever I think is right. Sola Scriptura all the way baby!

E. Well we can’t really know “truth” if there is a disagreement of this magnitude. One “truth” is as good as another. It is all “relative” anyway (relativism).

F. “Who knows, who cares” (the luke warm paradigm).

G. I check out whatever the latest public Catholic Gallup Poll is and I go with that, because after all, they must be the sensus fidei (the re-defining of the sensus fidei motif).

What is your answer to this conundrum?
 
jinc1019 #323
…If the Pope and a small minority of bishops say one thing is true, and the overwhelming majority of all other bishops say another thing is true (including all other traditional patriarchs)…Who has authority?
There is no question of a mere “saying”; the truth from Vatican I, and Vatican II, Lumen Gentium 25, is that the Popes’, “definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly styled irreformable, since they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, promised to him in blessed Peter, and therefore they need no approval of others, nor do they allow an appeal to any other judgment.”

So where does the authority lie, as affirmed by the Catholic Church?
 
This question shows the confusion present, but enables the realization that Christ has provided His Church with His Supreme Vicar who is charged with approving and promulgating all definitions to develop the understanding of the truths given to His Church.

It fails to appreciate the many doctrinal and dogmatic Magisterial definitions which have had to be promulgated so as to bind the faithful to the reality of the truth.
After the reality of Peter’s primacy and infallibility (post #283) how obtuse to continue in the fantasy that the other Apostles taught anything contrary to communion with St Peter their head!

Show where that fantasy occurs.

We are specifically taught that Peter led the meeting which elected the first successor to an Apostle (Acts 1:13-26).
Nowhere in your response did you refute my first point. So, again, where do you find any Pope in the 2,000 year history of the Church claiming to be able to teach anything infallibly other than that which has ALREADY been taught or revealed? Where? You can’t do it because it has never happened. The Pope is limited to teaching that which has already existed. He, along with the bishops, can refine teachings already present and to some extent expand upon them, but he cannot create new teachings spontaneously as you suggest he can. And if he can, please show one example of a Pope claiming this? Please also explain why every Pope, whenever they find themselves teaching any particular document, ALWAYS claim that whatever they are teaching is Apostolic in origin? If they have the power to essentially teach anything infallibly, why does its origins mean anything?

Further, you claim I am being “obtuse,” but again…Show me where Jesus claims that the Apostles only are infallibly protected when in communion with Peter. It cannot be shown because it doesn’t exist.
 
False.

Those who call the citations which prove the primacy and infallibility of the Pope from the Gospels mere “assertions” are asserting their ignorance of the reality of those Gospels and of the reality of the evidence for the primacy and infallibility therein.

The Reality
Already, Peter had exercised his supreme authority in the upper room before Pentecost to have Judas’ place filled. At the first Apostolic Council of Jerusalem Peter settled the heated discussion over circumcising the gentiles and “the whole assembly fell silent” (Acts 15:7-12). Paul made sure that his ministry to the gentiles was recognised by, Peter (Gal 1:I8).

Peter often spoke for the rest of the Apostles (Mt 19:27; Mk 8:29; Lk 12:41; Jn 6:69). The Apostles are sometimes referred to as “Peter and his companions” (Lk 9:32; Mk 16:7; Acts 2:37). Peter’s name always heads the list of the Apostles (Mt 10:1-4; Mk 3:16-19; Lk 6:14-16; Acts 1:13). Finally, Peter’s name is mentioned 191 times, which is more than all the rest of the Apostles combined (about 130 times).

After Peter, the most frequently mentioned Apostle is John, whose name appears 48 times. Peter is conspicuously involved in all the Church’s important “firsts.” Peter led the meeting which elected the first successor to an Apostle ( Acts 1:13-26). Peter preached the first sermon at Pentecost (Acts 2:14), and received the first converts (Acts 2:4 1). Peter performed the first miracle after Pentecost (Acts 3:6-7), inflicted the first punishment upon Ananias and Saphira (Acts 5:1-11), and excommunicated the first heretic Simon the magician (Acts 8:2 1).

Peter is the first Apostle to raise a person from the dead (Acts 9:36-4 1). Peter first received the revelation to admit Gentiles into the Church (Acts 10:9-16), and commanded that the first Gentile converts be baptized (Acts 10:44-48).

It is high time to face the facts of reality and listen to Christ who founded His Church on St Peter – His Supreme Vicar with His authority to teach on faith and morals.

How unfortunate that many who think they are thinking are merely rearranging their prejudices. (William James).
Once again (for whatever reason you keep doing this), I am not disputing Peter’s role as the “Head of the Church.” The issue is JUST HOW POWERFUL was he in relation to the other Apostles. None of the evidence you suggest from scripture says anything about Peter’s power over the other Apostles. In fact, Peter himself was rebuked by Paul for his position on gentiles.

Yes, Peter spoke at the first council and all were silent…so did others! That doesn’t mean they have supreme authority, does it?

Further, where do you see any record of Peter claiming, professing, arguing for, fighting over, enforcing, or controlling the other Apostles the way some Popes in history have? If your standard is going to Peter, then you can’t grant more power to his successors than he himself had. There is no evidence Peter was what so many Popes in history have claimed to be.
 
Mardukm. You said (regarding the Papacy, authority, and the faith and morals issue):

The way you are presenting that is utter non-sense.

I have taken great pains to say the Pope CANNOT act of his own accord concerning Apostolic teaching.

But I have also taken great pains to say he CAN act of his own accord in PRESERVING Apostolic teachings too.

Nobody here is saying:

“Oh yes! The pope can act outside of the needs of the Church!”

Nobody. Nobody.

And nobody here is saying:

OH YES! The Pope gets to act of his own accord in the sense of CHANGING doctrine!"

As I said, the fact that you keep proverbially putting these words on my keyboard, suggests weakness to your argument.

Why not deal with the issue? Why not deal with the issue of the paradigm of authority?

You said:

OK. Fine. Then change that to a “democratic Episcopal process”, change it to an “Episcopal majority”, change it to whatever you want, but you know exactly what I mean and you have NOT addressed the issue. Not ONCE.

That’s exactly WHY jinc1019 can ask:

What’s the answer to that question Mardukm?

You got 101 bishops with a hotly contested issue. You as a layman are not sure. There are people going both ways on the issue all around you too.

What’s the answer Mardukm?

Bishop of Rome + 15 other Bishops say one thing is PRESERVING Apostolic doctrine.

**The other 85 Bishops say something else diametrically opposed is PRESERVING Apostolic doctrine. **

Who do you go with Mardukm?

A. I go with the consensus of the Magisterium that is the POPE AND the Bishops in UNION with the Pope (the Bishop of Rome + the 15 other Bishops).

B. I go with the consensus of the majority of Bishops (the 85 dissenting Bishops). A sort of “democracy” among the Bishops themselves.

C. I go with whatever doctrine the Bishop of my diocese states even though he differs from the Pope. Even though the Bishop of the next diocese over, sides with the Pope et. al.

I just affirm “all Bishops are really autocephalous". Truth is kind of nebulous and “mystical” anyway, except when we disagree with Rome. THEN truth is ABSOLUTE. We need some “mystery”. It is not good to think we can have absolute truth.

D. I pull out my Bible and come up with whatever I think is right. Sola Scriptura all the way baby!

E. Well we can’t really know “truth” if there is a disagreement of this magnitude. One “truth” is as good as another. It is all “relative” anyway (relativism).

F. “Who knows, who cares” (the luke warm paradigm).

G. I check out whatever the latest public Catholic Gallup Poll is and I go with that, because after all, they must be the sensus fidei (the re-defining of the sensus fidei motif).

What is your answer to this conundrum?
That’s a fair question.
 
Dear jinc,

The Catholic Church has never given up the teaching that EVERY country is bound to follow the laws of God as proposed by the Church. The Church has publicly opposed every immoral laws set by any State. This is the dogma of the Church. In the middle ages, the Church was commonly and irrevocably mixed in with the State, since the State often worked under the notion of “divine-right rule.” In today’s world, there are hardly any “divine-right rulers” (except, I think, the Pope for the Vatican State).

So the Church’s teaching that the Church and State cannot be separated was interpreted by those in the Middle Ages to mean that the Church is involved in the POLITICS of a State - particularly in the elevation and deposition of rulers. That interpretation is not the dogma of the teaching “no separation of Church and State.” The dogma of that teaching, rather, is the notion that every State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church. If the State establishes laws opposed to God’s laws, you can bet the Church will do all she can to oppose it (in adherence to the dogma that the State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church). I’m sure you will agree that this is the case today (in areas such abortion, gay marriage, destruction of life, euthanasia, etc., etc., etc,). The Church today certainly no longer has the kind of political power she possessed in the Middle Ages, but she still very much maintains the dogma that the State is bound by God’s laws as proposed by the Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
Marduk,
I don’t disagree with your final assertion, but you are incorrect about the Syllabus of Errors. It clearly teaches, in several locations, that it is an “error” worthy of an anathema to teach that citizens should have the freedom to worship freely in society (No. 77, No. 78, No. 55). The Pope was quite clear on this issue in 1864, well after the founding of America and the end of the issues you present from the Middle Ages.
 
jinc1019 #329
Show me where Jesus claims that the Apostles only are infallibly protected when in communion with Peter. It cannot be shown because it doesn’t exist.
They never were not in communion with Peter – you cannot show us where they clamed to be separate because they didn’t have the prerogatives so clearly given by Christ Himself to Peter which you have been quite unable to refute. They never even tried to establish any Church separate from Peter’s authority.

You cannot ever show any instance when Jesus gave any powers to the Apostles separate from Peter.

Face reality.
jinc1019 #330
Yes, Peter spoke at the first council and all were silent…so did others! That doesn’t mean they have supreme authority, does it?
Already, Peter had exercised his supreme authority in the upper room before Pentecost to have Judas’ place filled.

At the first Apostolic Council of Jerusalem Peter **settled the heated discussion **over circumcising the gentiles and “the whole assembly fell silent” (Acts 15:7-12). Paul made sure that his ministry to the gentiles was recognised by, Peter (Gal 1:I8). Peter finalised the decision and there was no further discussion.

You appear to have great difficulty in understanding and in accepting the Gospel itself.

About Pope Victor I’s declaration by edict, about the year 200, that any local Church that failed to conform with Rome was excluded from the union with the one Church by heresy, none other than the radical protestant Adolph von Harnack admitted that Victor I was “recognised, in his capacity of bishop of Rome, as the special guardian of the ‘common unity’… " (See And On This Rock, p 118, 1987, Trinity Communications, Fr Stanley L Jaki).

Harnack asked: “How would Victor have ventured on such an edict – though indeed he had not the power of enforcing it in every case – unless the special prerogative of Rome to determine the conditions of the ‘common unity’ in the vital questions of faith had been an acknowledged and well-established fact?”

Face the reality.

The apostles were a collegial community, under Peter. “By the end of the apostolic age, the bishops of the Catholic Church began meeting together on a regional basis, and with the first ecumenical council at Nicaea in 325, this co-operative activity reached worldwide proportions.” (Fr John A Hardon, S.J., The Catholic Catechism, Doubleday, 1975, p 320-321).
 
Nowhere in your response did you refute my first point.**] So, again, where do you find any Pope in the 2,000 year history of the Church claiming to be able to teach anything infallibly other than that which has ALREADY been taught or revealed? Where? You can’t do it because it has never happened. **]The Pope is limited to teaching that which has already existed. He, along with the bishops, can refine teachings already present and to some extent expand upon them, but he cannot create new teachings spontaneously as you suggest he can. And if he can, please show one example of a Pope claiming this? Please also explain why every Pope, whenever they find themselves teaching any particular document, ALWAYS claim that whatever they are teaching is Apostolic in origin? If they have the power to essentially teach anything infallibly, why does its origins mean anything?

Further, you claim I am being “obtuse,” but again…Show me where Jesus claims that the Apostles only are infallibly protected when in communion with Peter. It cannot be shown because it doesn’t exist.
I’ll have a go!

Circumcision = Peter
Calendar = Greg
Books of Scriptures = listed = Innocent
Holy Writ ‘library books’ - Closed!! = Trent (a case FOR Councilor concensus?)
Immaculate Conception

…just some of the matters NOT previously taught or revealed.

BROTHERS Mardukm, Ambrose, Abu, Catholico and others…
It often seems to be that you are arguing past each other, perhaps due to your different viewpoints or vantages of the same ‘college.’

FRONT, REAR and SIDE views! (You may argue as to who is at the ‘rear view’ but in the end it does not matter)

Just an observation but perhaps looking from the East, Mardukm can ‘see’ the collegiate of bishops with the Pope behind them. Contrast with Abu, looking from the West, sees the Pope in front with the collegiate behind him.

So from the rear vantage, you may see the collegiate move left and the Pope moves with them…is your style of argument!
The other vantage sees the Pope move right and the collegiate moves with him…is your style of argument.
The crux of your arguments though seem to be about which moved FIRST!..or which one moves the other! (Of course, I may be wrong but it is an observation)

Jincs - though sees the Pope ALONGSIDE the collegiate (Sideview) and is confused why he (Pope) should be leader as they all look even and alike! Therefore, if any disagreements arise, surely if the collegiate splits left and right, the majority should have the day!

Every (Roman) Catholic knows - whether devout or nominal - that our local bishop is EQUAL in every way to the Bishop of Rome!!..otherwise we wouldn’t heed him on matters we don’t like! But we also know - matter of factly - that the Founder of The Church commissioned Pete to be steward with The Keys, so we have somewhere to look to when things don’t seem to allign with other bishops either around us or abroad, or our local bishop confound our Christian senses! This ‘comparison’ is more readily available with modern technology, of course.

So perhaps the proper view for a Catholic is the bird’s eyeview!..where they all look the same except one is wearing the Ten Gallon White Hat!..

We stick with the White Hat because the Ranch Owner gave him that hat! We always pray that he never takes it off or it falls off his head…otherwise we’d lose him among the many bishops and NOT have our referrence point to get our bearings…and we become like the Protesters or the East!

:cool:
 
“Oh yes! The pope can act outside of the needs of the Church!”

Nobody. Nobody.

And nobody here is saying:

OH YES! The Pope gets to act of his own accord in the sense of CHANGING doctrine!"

As I said, the fact that you keep proverbially putting these words on my keyboard, suggests weakness to your argument.
Then be clear and don’t say “The Pope can act of his own accord.” Because that’s what that statement means. It means that het can act without taking into account anything else but his own concerns. Simple as that. You should not be saying things that non-Catholics can EASILY misinterpret.
OK. Fine. Then change that to a “democratic Episcopal process”, change it to an “Episcopal majority”, change it to whatever you want, but you know exactly what I mean and you have NOT addressed the issue. Not ONCE.
I did address the issue. I gave you the correct definition of “democratic process.” This prompted you to clarify yourself, which is how rhetoric works. Read through the thread as I suggested earlier. You will have your questions answered. Better yet, there is a search function. You can do a search with my name and pull up all my posts within a certain time period.
That’s exactly WHY jinc1019 can ask:
What’s the answer to that question Mardukm?
I answered him earlier in the thread. He said my answer was very good and agreed with most of it, but he admitted he still has to ponder it. Again, the problem here is that you jump into conversations without reading the context of what went on before.

Blessings
 
Deconi
“Viewpoints” instead of obedience are what cause the errors of dissent.

On the genuine doctrinal development of collegiality, *Lumen Gentium *(Dogmatic Constitution of the Church), 25, teaches clearly: “But Episcopal consecration, together with the office of sanctifying, also confers the office of teaching and of governing, which, however, of its very nature, can be exercised only in hierarchical communion with the head and the members of the college.”

……“collegial infallibility…marks a turning point in doctrinal history.” [See Fr John A Hardon, S.J., *The Catholic Catechism, 1975, Doubleday, p 232-233]. This refers to the bishops around the world when teaching in accord with the Pope; when reflecting historical continuity of teaching; and in an Ecumenical Council when approved by a Pope.

There is no room for the selfist prejudices which try to conform the reality into their own mold.
 
Collegiality is not a “development” but is the way the Church has been operating from the very beginning.

It is your Absolutist Petrine sola papa error that does not even count as a development, but is an UTTER NOVELTY. That is why many in the 19th century called your position “NEO-ultramontantism.” Vatican 1 tried to get rid of it, but those such as yourself try your best to overturn what the Fathers at V1 actually intended. :sad_yes:
Deconi
“Viewpoints” instead of obedience are what cause the errors of dissent.

On the genuine doctrinal development of collegiality, *Lumen Gentium *(Dogmatic Constitution of the Church), 25, teaches clearly: “But Episcopal consecration, together with the office of sanctifying, also confers the office of teaching and of governing, which, however, of its very nature, can be exercised only in hierarchical communion with the head and the members of the college.”

……“collegial infallibility…marks a turning point in doctrinal history.” [See Fr John A Hardon, S.J., *The Catholic Catechism
, 1975, Doubleday, p 232-233]. This refers to the bishops around the world when teaching in accord with the Pope; when reflecting historical continuity of teaching; and in an Ecumenical Council when approved by a Pope.

There is no room for the selfist prejudices which try to conform the reality into their own mold.
 
Dear brother Deconi,
Just an observation but perhaps looking from the East, Mardukm can ‘see’ the collegiate of bishops with the Pope behind them.
I think perhaps you misunderstand the Church’s doctrine of collegiality (the High Petrine view). Collegiality does not put the Pope behind the College, but puts the Pope WITHIN the College.

This is in distinction from Abu’s Absolutist Petrine aberration which places the Pope in front of and outside the college.

Blessings
 
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