Logical Case for Papal Authority?

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Dear Cathoholic,

First, I commend you for at least putting up reasonable arguments in comparison to some others here.

Second, I don’t disagree with you that Mardukm needs to address the situations you presented more clearly. He did somewhat address the issue already by essentially agreeing with SOME of your position. I certainly don’t want to speak FOR Mardukm, and I am sure he will correct me if am wrong when he returns, but I believe where Mardukm is leading me (well, everyone, but he was addressing me specifically) was down the following road: Historically, when the Pope and the bishops (any number of them, even a minority) agree on an issue and present a unified doctrine, the Pope and bishops have eventually won the day and been recognized as having authority (at least prior to the Great Schism, which he deliberately left out of the equation with the intention of addressing it later). So, assuming I understand him correctly, I would say that he agrees with you that the Pope with any group of bishops is held authoritative over even a majority of dissenting bishops. I could be wrong about that, but I don’t think I am. Even so, I hope he will address it.

Third, where you and Mardukm absolutely disagree is with the last third or so of your position, which states that the Pope alone can be the Magisterium even if every other bishop in the world disagrees. Mardukm would argue (I think) and I would agree that such a scenario is impossible because it would violate Jesus’ teaching that the “gates of hades shall not prevail.” If the entire Church abandons the Pope, the Church ceases to exist and the promise has been broken. It has never happened and it will never happen. That, I think, is his position on that issue.

However, you make a strong point: At what point then do we argue that enough bishops have left the Pope for the Church to fail and for the Magisterium to fall? That’s a fair question. Is it 15%, 10%, 1%? Is it a number? At least 5 bishops must be in communion? 11? 20?

I am interested to see how Mardukm would answer this, but given his prior answers, I would guess it would be similar to the answer I just gave you about 1 Pope with the rest of the dissenting bishops against him. Although there is no specific number, percentage etc., Jesus promised that the Church would be protected from the “gates of Hades,” which leads everyone to understand that there must clearly ALWAYS be a Church with which Christians can identify and know exists. In other words, Jesus not only promises that the Church will prevail; he must also be promising that in the case of dissention, we will all be able to know who the Church really is. In other words, how can the Church prevail if the Church has been so torn apart and broken that no one can actually identify what the Church looks like and who is in/out of it? You would say, “Well yeah, it’s always easy to see because it’s wherever the Pope is,” but I think that denies the reality of what the Church was for the first 1,000 years of its existence.

Prior to mass media, television, the Internet, print publications, etc…the overwhelming majority of Christians in the world for hundreds upon hundreds of years probably had absolutely no understanding of the Pope and were well out of reach of his influence. They would never in this environment identify the Church as ONLY that which is in communion with Peter…and history has shown that they didn’t. Many different Christian churches broke away from communion with Rome or were forced out at one time or another. Some Christians cared but most did not since the only leader who really mattered to them was the local bishop. This, regardless of theology, is practically true and absolutely a fact. The Pope had very little direct influence on the average Christian for much of the first 1,000 years at least (especially outside of Italy). It’s also a fact that many of the other bishops and patriarchs routinely dismissed the Pope or ignored him…In some cases, they even forced him to change his position. These are historical facts, and they show that the kind of power and authority many of you on here are claiming for the Pope simply didn’t exist in the Early Church. You could argue it should have, but you can’t argue it actually did exist.

Personally, I don’t know if I can accept the idea that the Pope and a small minority of bishops could actually be guaranteed to proclaim the true faith. Why? Because if the 85% of the bishops have fallen away from the “true” faith, that means that the Church has basically been corrupted and the “gates of Hades” have essentially prevailed. I don’t know how you could argue otherwise. If you are going to say the “gates of Hades” have not prevailed until ALL, including the Pope, have fallen away, then that totally undermines your argument that the Pope MUST teach infallibly at all times or else the “gates of Hades” have prevailed. You can’t argue that one lie by the Pope is the “gates of Hades” prevailing but 4,000 bishops falling away EXCEPT one Pope is not.

Not to mention, how could you possibly reconcile your belief with the promise Jesus made that “when two or three speak in my name, I am there”? Think about it…Jesus promised all of the Apostles together that he would be there for them when they spoke in his name…It’s impossible then that they could all fall away and leave behind one Pope.

I understand and appreciate your arguments, but I just don’t see how you reconcile the historical treatment of the Pope in the first 800 years of the Church by many, and in some cases most, other bishops. They didn’t, clearly, have the kind of view of his authority that you do today. I also don’t understand how you reconcile your position with Jesus’ promise that “when two or three speak in my name, I am there…”
 
Continued…

If the Pope is speaking apart from the bishops infallibly, then the bishops can’t disagree. If they do, the Pope is either not speaking about “faith and morals” or the entire Church has abandoned the Pope. You can’t argue successfully, as you have already tried to do, that the bishops could all walk away from the Pope without dealing with Jesus’ promises to the rest of the Apostles in Matthew 18 and the reality that the “gates of Hades” at that point would have prevailed. You will find not a single source in the Early Church which believed that the Church could still be in existence with only the Bishop of Rome in place.
 
Dear brother Deconi,

If Abu can make most of his statements without the word “ALONE” there will most likely be an objective agreement. Until then, his statements misrepresent Church teaching to non-Catholics, preventing them from accepting the Church’s true teaching on the papacy. Hence, instead of supporting the papacy, Absolutist Petrine advocates are actually undermining the very purpose for which Christ instituted the primacy - as a means to ensure the unity of the Church.

The importance of a proper witness is evident from the OP’s comments. The OP correctly perceives a definite difference between what High Petrine advocates are stating, compared to what Abu states. Whereas the non-Catholic OP priorly felt he could find no common ground with the Catholic teaching on the papacy, now he does – and.it has certainly not been because of Abu’s excesses that the OP now feels better able to assess the Catholic teaching.

Blessings
This is an absolute fact. The teaching that the Pope alone has supreme authority and power and infallibility separate from the rest of the Church has historically divided the Church MORE than any other issue in history (and for a longer amount of time). Some of it is perceived, as Mardukm explains, but some of it also comes from inappropriate actions/claims made by popes.
 
Once again Abu,
  1. Peter was not the only one who stood up and spoke, nor is he the only one that caused the entire room to go silent.
  2. Stating that it was necessary that a candidate be chosen with certain conditions in no way means that he alone made that decision, nor does it mean that anyone disagreed with him, nor does it really prove or disprove your argument at all! It’s a terrible argument on your part.
  3. If Peter had all the authority you claim he had, it still makes NO SENSE that he would draw lots, which was an ancient way of letting God decide, when he could have just made the choice himself unilaterally. The fact that lots were cast undermines your position (albeit not necessarily completely), and it certainly does NOT support it.
Fwiw, you might be interested in reading this: philvaz.com/apologetics/num52.htm.

In the section on Peter in the first chapter of Acts, he quotes from John Chrysostom’s explanation that:
"Wherefore at the beginning he said: ‘Men and brethren, it behoves us to choose from among you.’ He defers the decision to the whole body, thereby making the elected objects of reverence, and himself keeping clear of all invidiousness with regard to the rest…‘Must one be ordained to be a witness,’ that their college [Greek] might not be left mutilated. Then why did it not rest with Peter to make the election himself? What was the motive? This: that he might not seem to bestow it of favor. And, besides, he was not yet endowed with the Spirit. ‘And they appointed two, Joseph, called Barsabas, who was surnamed Justus, and Matthias.’ Not he appointed them, but it was he that introduced the proposition to that effect, at the same time pointing out that even this was not his own, but from old time by prophecy, so that he acted as expositor not preceptor.
And
“Here is forethought for providing a teacher; here was the first who was ordained a teacher. He did not say: ‘We are sufficient.’ So far was he beyond all vain glory, and he looked to one thing alone. And yet he had the same power to ordain as they all collectively. [3] But well might these things be done in this fashion, through the noble spirit of the man, and in regard that prelacy [Greek] then was not an affair of dignity, but of provident care for the governed. This neither made the elected to become elated, for it was to dangers that they were called, nor those not elected to make a grievance of it, as if they were disgraced. But things are not done in that fashion now; nay, quite the contrary.* For observe they were a hundred and twenty, and he asks for one out of the whole body; with good right, as having been put in charge of them* [Benedictine text has different Greek here]; for to him Christ had said: ‘And when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren’.”
 
Steve,
That has absolutely nothing to do with the topic at hand. I am NOT a sola scriptura guy anyway, so it really has no relevance at all.
My question to you most certainly has to do with the question you asked me. I’m not asking for a sola scriptura defense.

You asked me
Originally Posted by jinc1019 forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
Steve…Show me where Jesus promises infallibility to Peter and NOT also to the other apostles? I am sure you will admit Jesus did promise infallibility to the Apostles…So show me WHERE Jesus conditions that infallibility on being in communion with Peter? Where does he say that? He never does.
When you ask that question, you’re asking for a biblical reference in particular. So before I answer you, I want to know up front where you are with regards to the authority of the bible as a source. Is it infallible? or inerrant? both? neither? I’d like to know where you are on that question and why.
 
Fwiw, you might be interested in reading this: philvaz.com/apologetics/num52.htm.

In the section on Peter in the first chapter of Acts, he quotes from John Chrysostom’s explanation that:

And
Those are great quotes (assuming they are accurate)…I would, however, point out that the classical understanding of Petrine authority in the East understood that Peter had been given a unique role and power, but instead believed that all bishops shared the power of Peter’s keys. This is evident in St. Cyprian’s writings, who predates Chrysostom by quite a bit.

I am not saying I necessarily buy that, only that your quotes don’t deny that classic Eastern view of the keys.
 
My question to you most certainly has to do with the question you asked me. I’m not asking for a sola scriptura defense.

You asked me

When you ask that question, you’re asking for a biblical reference in particular. So before I answer you, I want to know up front where you are with regards to the authority of the bible as a source. Is it infallible? or inerrant? both? neither? I’d like to know where you are on that question and why.
I have no desire to get into a battle over the Bible…especially since I am not interested in debating sola scriptura. The Bible is, however, inerrant in the sense that it is precisely what God wants us to have. It is not infallible because it isn’t a source of authority, but instead a result or product of it. It is apart of the Tradition of the Church and is the most trustworthy source we have of Divine revelation, although church Tradition could also capture Divine Revelation as well…it’s just not as trustworthy since it wasn’t written down and agreed upon until even later than the Bible.
 
For all of you who proclaim that the Pope has absolute power and authority apart from the rest of the Church (as well as the protection of the Holy Spirit), I ask you this…Did Pope Leo X infallibly teach that it was permissible to burn heretics?

In Papal Bull Exsurge Domine, a letter written to the churches of the world to point out the errors of Martin Luther, Pope Leo met every single condition put forward by Vatican I (assuming Vatican I allows the Pope to teach completely apart from the rest of the Church) regarding an infallible ex cathedra decree.

Before listing the errors of Martin Luther, he states quite clearly:
Rise, Peter, and fulfill this pastoral office divinely entrusted to you as mentioned above. Give heed to the cause of the holy Roman Church, mother of all churches and teacher of the faith, whom you by the order of God, have consecrated by your blood.
He then says later in the same introduction:
In virtue of our pastoral office committed to us by the divine favor we can under no circumstances tolerate or overlook any longer the pernicious poison of the above errors without disgrace to the Christian religion and injury to orthodox faith. Some of these errors we have decided to include in the present document; their substance is as follows:
So here you have the Pope:
  1. Writing as the head of the Church,
  2. Invoking the spirit and office of St. Peter,
  3. For edification of the entire Church,
  4. With the intention that his command would be taken authoritatively as the successor to Peter,
  5. On many issues of faith and morals.
All the qualifications of an ex cathedra infallible decree are met according to the Vatican I standard so many of you are suggesting exists. Yet, one of the ERRORS the Pope laments about is:
  1. A good work done very well is a venial sin.
  1. That heretics be burned is against the will of the Spirit.
  1. To go to war against the Turks is to resist God who punishes our iniquities through them.
So based on your own standard, the Pope infallibly taught that it is an ERROR to teach that the burning of heretics is “against the will of the [Holy] Spirit.”

How many of you are prepared to accept this as official and binding and infallible? If you aren’t, you have a lot of explaining to do since it clearly meets every qualification for infallibility.

The Catholic Encyclopedia itself declares that this Papal Bull was held by successive Popes to be a standard for automatic excommunication…meaning anyone who disagreed with it would be automatically excommunicated from the Church.
 
This is an absolute fact. The teaching that the Pope alone has supreme authority and power and infallibility separate from the rest of the Church has historically divided the Church MORE than any other issue in history (and for a longer amount of time). Some of it is perceived, as Mardukm explains, but some of it also comes from inappropriate actions/claims made by popes.
Seperation was going on from the beginning and it was condemned from the beginning, as were the people dissented.

For example

Romans 16:17-20 , The Greek word for “dissension” in both passages is the same Greek word. So we know what the consequence to the soul is who dissents from the Church. The only Church the apostles are building. The Catholic Church.

So what was THEIR excuse THEN in the 1st century who dissented from the Church? Bottomline as Paul puts it in his letter to the Church of Rome, dissenters were being successfully sifted by satan and they convinced the naive to follow them into dissent from the Church…

Re: Papal Authority.

After the resurrection, Jesus singles Peter out again as He did multiple times, and said to Peter, " (poimaino) Tend my sheep" . Do you know what that Greek word means?

Poimaino [Jn 21:16]

definition

to feed, to tenda flock, keep sheep
a)to rule, govern

Is there anybody Jesus left out of that commission for Peter NOT to feed, tend, keep, rule, govern?

this is an authority issue that goes back to Adam. Jesus set up the hierarchy model for His Church, and He put Peter as the leader of the Church on earth. One has to ask, How can Peter feed, tend, rule Our Lord’s sheep as Jesus directed, when there are sheep who refuse to be fed, tended, ruled by Peter?

These threads and topics tend to repeat themselves. Here’s from one of those threads that might further answer a few of your questions
#128 , #129
 
I have no desire to get into a battle over the Bible…especially since I am not interested in debating sola scriptura. The Bible is, however, inerrant in the sense that it is precisely what God wants us to have. It is not infallible because it isn’t a source of authority, but instead a result or product of it. It is apart of the Tradition of the Church and is the most trustworthy source we have of Divine revelation, although church Tradition could also capture Divine Revelation as well…it’s just not as trustworthy since it wasn’t written down and agreed upon until even later than the Bible.
The question is not designed to start a battle. Why do you look for the worst in everyrthing. I merely wanted to see what your understanding is.
 
The question is not designed to start a battle. Why do you look for the worst in everyrthing. I merely wanted to see what your understanding is.
Honestly, you are right…I shouldn’t be so defensive. I answered your question though so I hope that satisfies your request.
 
Seperation was going on from the beginning and it was condemned from the beginning, as were the people dissented.

For example

Romans 16:17-20 , The Greek word for “dissension” in both passages is the same Greek word. So we know what the consequence to the soul is who dissents from the Church. The only Church the apostles are building. The Catholic Church.

So what was THEIR excuse THEN in the 1st century who dissented from the Church? Bottomline as Paul puts it in his letter to the Church of Rome, dissenters were being successfully sifted by satan and they convinced the naive to follow them into dissent from the Church…

Re: Papal Authority.

After the resurrection, Jesus singles Peter out again as He did multiple times, and said to Peter, " (poimaino) Tend my sheep" . Do you know what that Greek word means?

Poimaino [Jn 21:16]

definition

to feed, to tenda flock, keep sheep
a)to rule, govern

Is there anybody Jesus left out of that commission for Peter NOT to feed, tend, keep, rule, govern?

this is an authority issue that goes back to Adam. Jesus set up the hierarchy model for His Church, and He put Peter as the leader of the Church on earth. One has to ask, How can Peter feed, tend, rule Our Lord’s sheep as Jesus directed, when there are sheep who refuse to be fed, tended, ruled by Peter?

These threads and topics tend to repeat themselves. Here’s from one of those threads that might further answer a few of your questions
#128 , #129
Again Steve, the issue isn’t whether Peter or his successors are supposed to lead or tend the flock. The issue is: What does that leadership/authority look like?

I would appreciate it if you would answer my last question about Pope Leo X’s papal bull.
 
Again Steve, the issue isn’t whether Peter or his successors are supposed to lead or tend the flock. The issue is: What does that leadership/authority look like?
The issue is always something else.

NOW the question is, what does it LOOK like? One office, for 2000 years and running, 266 successors to St Peter and running, and you ask what does it look like?

your most recent question to me was
Originally Posted by jinc1019 forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
Steve…Show me where Jesus promises infallibility to Peter and NOT also to the other apostles? I am sure you will admit Jesus did promise infallibility to the Apostles…So show me WHERE Jesus conditions that infallibility on being in communion with Peter? Where does he say that? He never does.
I give you the answers as I have to all your questions, and I use scripture, tradition (ECF’s), the councils, the teaching magesterium of the Church, and to boot, I gave a previous thread dealing with the same issues that came up that I responded to. See if any of my responses there, answer your remaining questions? #128 , #129 post 129 give all my responses by response prior to post 129, and you can follow the thread past that to see the remainder of my posts. If my answers don’t work for you, see if others answer your questions. You will hopefully see how agregious at times I for one was misquoted by others. What’s new? This thread has done the same thing to others. A person can say one thing and imputed as saying something ridiculously different. That’s sort of the way things go with some folks…

So … what’s your answer to my last post?
I would appreciate
Pray tell 😉
j:
it if you would answer my last question about Pope Leo X’s papal bull.
one can’t read one encyclical without the other. Luther was given ample warning. He didn’t take it. By his own choice.

Luther, Exsurge Domine, Bull of Leo X

then came
Decet Romanum Pontificem

btw, here’s Luther admitting he added alone to faith where it wasn’t in the original text. As He put it, "if your Papist wishes to make a great fuss about the word “alone” (sola), say this to him: “Dr. Martin Luther will have it so”
http://www.iclnet.org/pub/resources/text/wittenberg/luther/luther-translate.txt
 
jinc1019 #358
3. If Peter had all the authority you claim he had, it still makes NO SENSE that he would draw lots, which was an ancient way of letting God decide, when he could have just made the choice himself unilaterally. The fact that lots were cast undermines your position (albeit not necessarily completely), and it certainly does NOT support it.
  1. There is no mere “claim” as to Peter’s authority which has been declared by Christ Himself, detailed to you, and you have been totally unable to refute that fact from the Sacred Scriptures.
  2. Peter manifestly gives the orders and mandates the college of the Apostles to choose after invoking God’s help for a wise decision through prayer.
  3. You haven’t a leg to stand on with such a furphy – we are dealing with the facts which are crystal clear not stupid fantasies of what “he could” have done – what next?
#364
I would, however, point out that the classical understanding of Petrine authority in the East understood that Peter had been given a unique role and power, but instead believed that all bishops shared the power of Peter’s keys.
That is precisely why the Orthodox are not united to Christ’s Church now, because they split from it by their “classical” selfism of denying Christ’s mandate to Peter, and further – they explicitly have fallen into the grave errors of permitting divorce and remarriage, denying the reality of the infallibility of the Pope and His supremacy, and rejecting the dogma of the Immaculate Conception.

The fact that they have not fallen into the other errors of Protestantism does not absolve them from their own errors.

Catholic was first used by St Ignatius of Antioch in his letter to the Smyrneans, A.D. 107, “Where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” It is from the Greek katholike meaning “general” or “universal”. Within 90 years it meant also “orthodox” or faithful to the teachings of Christ. (The Catholic Catechism, Fr John A Hardon, S.J., Doubleday, 1975, p 217)
 
jinc1019 #357
You can’t seriously be telling everyone here that “collegiality” didn’t exist as a doctrine until John XXII?
It is Popes John XXIII, and Paul VI; and since when have you the knowledge, scholarship and fidelity to truth to query Fr John A Hardon, S.J.? Why haven’t you cited the declaration and date of the doctrine, smart alec?
 
The issue is always something else.

NOW the question is, what does it LOOK like? One office, for 2000 years and running, 266 successors to St Peter and running, and you ask what does it look like?

your most recent question to me was

I give you the answers as I have to all your questions, and I use scripture, tradition (ECF’s), the councils, the teaching magesterium of the Church, and to boot, I gave a previous thread dealing with the same issues that came up that I responded to. See if any of my responses there, answer your remaining questions? #128 , #129 post 129 give all my responses by response prior to post 129, and you can follow the thread past that to see the remainder of my posts. If my answers don’t work for you, see if others answer your questions. You will hopefully see how agregious at times I for one was misquoted by others. What’s new? This thread has done the same thing to others. A person can say one thing and imputed as saying something ridiculously different. That’s sort of the way things go with some folks…

So … what’s your answer to my last post?

Pray tell 😉

one can’t read one encyclical without the other. Luther was given ample warning. He didn’t take it. By his own choice.

Luther, Exsurge Domine, Bull of Leo X

then came
Decet Romanum Pontificem

btw, here’s Luther admitting he added alone to faith where it wasn’t in the original text. As He put it, "if your Papist wishes to make a great fuss about the word “alone” (sola), say this to him: “Dr. Martin Luther will have it so”
http://www.iclnet.org/pub/resources/text/wittenberg/luther/luther-translate.txt
Steve,
Your response to me about the Papal Bull is proof that you don’t even bother to read the posts. Look at it again please. It has nothing to do with whether Martin Luther deserved to be excommunicated or not. The issue is that the Pope infallibly declared that burning heretics at the stake is permissible. Are you ready to defend that?

Secondly,
No, you never once presented any evidence that refuted my point, which was that the other Apostles were also promised infallibility. Further, you never once presented evidence that proved that Peter has the authority you claim today…Yes, we all know he was head of the church, but what does that office allow? You basically are saying “anything.” I disagree. That was my point. And…by the way, this isn’t a NEW argument by me…I have said NUMEROUS times throughout this thread that I accept Peter’s primacy and his position as head of the Church. The issue is related to how much power and authority the head of the Church was given/should now have.

Once again, I would like you to answer my question about the Papal Bull. Why? Because it proves my point. If your assertion is true, which is to say that when a Pope speaks authoritatively, to the Catholic world, on an issue of faith and morals, he is, without any question, speaking infallibly, then how can you explain the problem I presented? I presented to you a scenario where that clearly occurred…and one of the things Pope Leo X argued was that it’s ok to burn heretics (or, more properly said, he argued it was a grave error worthy of excommunication to argue that it WASN’T right to burn heretics). So which is it Steve? Is the Pope’s power and authority and infallibility unlimited apart from the Church? Or is it ok to burn heretics? That appears to be the only solution since the Papal Bull fulfills every single guideline set forth by Vatican I and Vatican II for speaking infallibly.
 
  1. There is no mere “claim” as to Peter’s authority which has been declared by Christ Himself, detailed to you, and you have been totally unable to refute that fact from the Sacred Scriptures.
  2. Peter manifestly gives the orders and mandates the college of the Apostles to choose after invoking God’s help for a wise decision through prayer.
  3. You haven’t a leg to stand on with such a furphy – we are dealing with the facts which are crystal clear not stupid fantasies of what “he could” have done – what next?
    That is precisely why the Orthodox are not united to Christ’s Church now, because they split from it by their “classical” selfism of denying Christ’s mandate to Peter, and further – they explicitly have fallen into the grave errors of permitting divorce and remarriage, denying the reality of the infallibility of the Pope and His supremacy, and rejecting the dogma of the Immaculate Conception.
The fact that they have not fallen into the other errors of Protestantism does not absolve them from their own errors.

Catholic was first used by St Ignatius of Antioch in his letter to the Smyrneans, A.D. 107, “Where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” It is from the Greek katholike meaning “general” or “universal”. Within 90 years it meant also “orthodox” or faithful to the teachings of Christ. (The Catholic Catechism, Fr John A Hardon, S.J., Doubleday, 1975, p 217)
Abu, I won’t argue with you any longer about Peter’s role as head of the Church. I have said, countless times at this point, that he was head of the Church and he had an office that was filled by a successor. The issue is…How much power did the office have? You have never once showed me anything from scripture which proves it’s as absolute as you are suggesting. Never once. You pointed to the First Jerusalem Council, and I refuted each and every point you made. You then suggested that Peter’s choice to draw lots to replace Judas was somehow proof of his absolute authority-a totally illogical argument given that THE PURPOSE OF DRAWING LOTS is to AVOID having to make a man-made decision.

I won’t address the “errors” of the Orthodox church because it’s not relevant.

I would point out this though…you claim Peter “mandated” and “ordered,” but you have no evidence to support such a conclusion. You are simply reading your bias into the text.

I URGE YOU to explain how you reconcile your position with Pope Leo X’s Papal Bull, which clearly states that burning heretics at the stake is permissible, and does so while meeting ALL OF THE GUIDELINES required for infallibility.
 
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