Malta: Priests ‘confused’ over bishops’ new guidelines

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If the Pope infallibly defines something contrary to something that has been infallibly taught for 2000 years, then the Gates of Hell have prevailed and the Catholic Church is not the Church Christ established.
Its probably not worth pointing out yet again that “Church teaching will be infallible under certain conditions” is in no way explicitly stated in the phrase, “the gates of hell shall not prevail,” and that even finding it in there implicitly is a pretty tortured but highly convenient reading.
 
Its probably not worth pointing out yet again that “Church teaching will be infallible under certain conditions” is in no way explicitly stated in the phrase, “the gates of hell shall not prevail,” and that even finding it in there implicitly is a pretty tortured but highly convenient reading.
It relates to Peter being the rock on which the Church is built, which is typically associated with Papal Infallibility and it is this proclamation in which Christ uses the expression about the Gates of Hell. Hence if Peter (and therefore the Papacy), is not the Rock then Christ’s claims are false.

This is not a theological argument, it is theological shorthand that is commonly understood and requires no explanation. It is also the passage that Vatican I used in prefacing and explaining its declaration of Papal Infallibility.
 
Its probably not worth pointing out yet again that “Church teaching will be infallible under certain conditions” is in no way explicitly stated in the phrase, “the gates of hell shall not prevail,” and that even finding it in there implicitly is a pretty tortured but highly convenient reading.
If we now start doubting teachings taught by the church councils, why again are protestants wrong? The creed, including the Trinity and the two natures of Jesus, the canon of scriptures, they all come from councils. Why is Vatican I wrong? And why is ANY part of Christianity true?
 
If we now start doubting teachings taught by the church councils, why again are protestants wrong? The creed, including the Trinity and the two natures of Jesus, the canon of scriptures, they all come from councils. Why is Vatican I wrong? And why is ANY part of Christianity true?
:clapping::clapping::clapping:
 
The problem I see is that the Maltese interpretation and implementation does not appear the same as the Argentinean one. While the Argentinean approach has been endorsed, the Maltese one has not been publically approved.

How are thoae that disagree with the Maltese approach disagreeing with the Pope?
 
Eh, just do what plenty of clergy did with Humanae Vitae.

Just ignore it and keep on keepin’ on. Mouth the line they demand at the seminary to pass, if that’s what that part takes. Even us laypeople had to do it in college sometimes.
 
If we now start doubting teachings taught by the church councils, why again are protestants wrong? The creed, including the Trinity and the two natures of Jesus, the canon of scriptures, they all come from councils. Why is Vatican I wrong? And why is ANY part of Christianity true?
I would ask instead why; hypothetically, anyone would need to throw out 1830 years of tradition simply because an innovation from 1869 proved untenable.
 
I would ask instead why; hypothetically, anyone would need to throw out 1830 years of tradition simply because an innovation from 1869 proved untenable.
Papal infallibility goes back to the very beginning:

“That tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; as also the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops. For it is a matter of necessity that every Church should agree with this Church, on account of its preeminent authority.” Saint Irenaeus of Lyons, AD 190

“After such things as these, moreover, they still dare— a false bishop having been appointed for them by, heretics— to set sail and to bear letters from schismatic and profane persons to the throne of Peter, and to the chief church whence priestly unity takes its source; and not to consider that these were the Romans whose faith was praised in the preaching of the apostle, to whom faithlessness could have no access.” Saint Cyprian of Carthage, c. AD 250

“For it is impossible that the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, who said, “Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church,” [Matthew 16:18], should not be verified. And their truth has been proved by the course of history, for in the Apostolic See the Catholic religion has always been kept unsullied.” The Formula of Hormisdas, AD 519

byzcath.org/forums/ubbthreads.php/topics/122063/The%20Formula%20of%20Pope%20St%20Hormisd

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=1037146
 
I would ask instead why; hypothetically, anyone would need to throw out 1830 years of tradition simply because an innovation from 1869 proved untenable.
That something was formalized in 1869 does not at all mean that it was invented then. There are any number of doctrines that the church teaches infallibly that have never been declared infallible, but were the church to do so it would not mean the infallibility stems from the proclamation, only that it was being formally recognized.

An example of this is the doctrine that women cannot be priests. That has been declared to be infallible, not because the pope (JPII) declared it to be so, but because he formally acknowledged that it was because of the way it has always been held by the church. Infallibility was not invented in 1869; it was only formalized then.

Ender
 
How is this catastrophe to be resolved? There may be a number of correct answers.

**Answer #1 **-- It will be resolved 100 years from now when we are all deceased. Not to worry, the Church will get around to it someday, and is it really all that important?

Answer #2 – the woman should sell her home in England and move into her vacation home in Malta (based upon which Bishop’s accompaniment better meets her needs).

Answer #3 – the woman should keep her home in England and sell her vacation home in Malta (again based upon which Bishop’s accompaniment better meets her needs).

Answer #4 – the woman should follow the sage advice of, “When in England, do as the English do” and “When in Malta, do as the Maltese do.” (You know, it’s the when in Rome … or when in Vegas … thingy)

Answer #5 – the woman should convert to the Church of England since salvation can be found there too and essentially the Catholic Church has now become Protestant

Answer #6 – Francis should answer the four Cardinals’ dubai and reaffirm orthodox teaching (or confirm for the world that he is both a material and a formal heretic).

Yes, this is the substance of farce, and it is not becoming for the Church that Christ himself established.
Yes, option 4 seems to be the most applicable of the six.

In matters of personal doubt one is likely blameless if one does not exceed the directives of one’s local ordinary and one in certain conscience is not conscious of grave sin re Communion. Even then continuous forming of oneself in controversial matters is a lifelong duty.
 
Yes, option 4 seems to be the most applicable of the six.

In matters of personal doubt one is likely blameless if one does not exceed the directives of one’s local ordinary and one in certain conscience is not conscious of grave sin re Communion. Even then continuous forming of oneself in controversial matters is a lifelong duty.
If you go with #4 then the church is neither universal nor “catholic” (small “c”)
 
If you go with #4 then the church is neither universal nor “catholic” (small “c”)
Seems like a good deal. Move to a 100% Catholic island to be able to receive communion. Now if you go back home to visit relatives in Peoria, you are barred.

Yes, quite universal.
 
Yes, option 4 seems to be the most applicable of the six.
Receiving or not depending on where one happens to be standing is tacit admission that the choice doesn’t really matter. If you choose one approach or the other you can at least convince yourself that your choice is the right one, but oscillating between both choices implies that there is no question of right or wrong involved, all there is is personal preference.

Ender
 
Originally Posted by Blue Horizon View Post
Yes, option 4 seems to be the most applicable of the six.
Well I suppose it depends on whether one sees the Church as an army or a family.
And whether a flock should be driven by fear from behind or exhorted to follow by relationship from the front.
It seems there is room for an “I” in “family”, but not in “army” :).

http://www.parroquiadesanbenito.com...-Buen-Pastor-con-la-oveja-en-los-hombros1.jpg

(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
 
If you choose one approach or the other you can at least convince yourself that your choice is the right one, but oscillating between both choices implies that there is no question of right or wrong involved, all there is is personal preference.

Ender
When in Malta
No situation ethics here at all from what I can see.
If anything simply humble obedience to the local ordinary in England.

When in England work curb your within the lesser limits of your Ordinary there.
When in Malta you are apparently free to act as your Ordinary there and your certain conscience re grave sin allows.

To receive in England would be to disobey the Ordinary…now that would more likely suggest one is not morally engaged.

You may not like what is allowed in Malta but where the logical inconsistency in making sure one works within the limits of obedience to both Ordinaries when in their Dioceses 🤷.

A bit of emotional bias seems to be affecting your reasoning above.
 
Papal infallibility goes back to the very beginning:

“That tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; as also the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops. For it is a matter of necessity that every Church should agree with this Church, on account of its preeminent authority.” Saint Irenaeus of Lyons, AD 190
a. What happened to those Catholic bishops and communities who didn’t see things quite the way Irenaeus opined? Oh yes, they aren’t in Communion and don’t count.

b. Irenaeus’s point against the Gnostics was that all of the Apostolic churches had preserved the same traditions and teachings in many independent streams. It was the unanimous agreement between these many independent streams of transmission that proved the orthodox Faith, current in those churches, to be true.
That seems a fairly long stretch away from the personal infallibility of today’s Pope and Council’s that don’t include all Apostolic Patriachees (which aren’t in Communion).
 
When in England work curb your within the lesser limits of your Ordinary there. When in Malta you are apparently free to act as your Ordinary there and your certain conscience re grave sin allows.
Since the bishops involved have contrary positions on the matter it ought to be apparent that at least one of them is wrong. If your “certain” conscience justifies the reception of communion in Malta it would equally justify it in England since the appropriateness of receiving is determined by the state of one’s marriage, not simply by the decrees of bishops. It cannot be right in the Mediterranean and wrong in the North Sea: it is right or wrong everywhere. Again, that determination is not made by the bishops.
To receive in England would be to disobey the Ordinary…now that would more likely suggest one is not morally engaged.
Not at all: if one has a certain conscience he may do as he pleases. That at least has been your position in the past. Why should an individual be required to assent to a bishop’s opinion when you have asserted he has no obligation to assent to the doctrines of the church?

Ender
 
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