Attention: Methodi, MarieCB and the rest…
That’s not in the Bible, but Augustine said something similar. He was talking about how the ONLY non-sinful reason to have sex was for procreation and that having sex for any other reason is “pardonable in the case of a wife, damnable in the case of a harlot” as long as it’s vaginal sex. But “when the man shall wish to use a body part of the wife not allowed for this purpose, the wife is more shameful, if she suffer it to take place in her own case, than if in the case of another woman”
So unless it’s vaginal, procreative sex, it’s less sinful for a man to go to a prostitute.
Just Google Augustine and sex.
But I seriously don’t believe it’s in the Bible.
The red statement above, I think is a wrong interpretation. Take note that you said, quoting St. Augustine, “the only non-sinful reason to have sex was for procreation and that having sex for any other reason is **pardonable **in the case of a wife,
damnable in the case of a harlot as long as its vaginal sex. But “when the man shall wish to use a body part of the wife not allowed for this purpose, the
wife is more shameful, if she suffer it to take place in her own case, than if
in the case of another woman””.
The correct interpretation of this is this: If sex is non-procreative but vaginal…pardonable with the wife, but not with a harlot. If sex uses wife’s other body parts not allowed for this purpose, the wife is more shameful if she allows this to be done to her, rather than another woman or a harlot. Therefore, the role of the WIFE in sex is more valued and highly placed than that of another woman or a harlot. The harlot can make her body parts be used in whatever way the user wants to use it without putting shame unto herself since she is a HARLOT after all, already immoral and a sinner, who is expected not to have shame anymore. But not in the case of a wife… if she still wants to be treated as a wife and not another harlot…Therefore, St. Augustine’s beliefs or whatever, never makes it less sinful for a man to go to a prostitute…
I mean, God sent Jesus Christ right? In Jesus, God made his additional but some new rules. There are no more violence, unlike in the old testament… and about sexuality… in all the 4 gospels, it clearly states that “it is better for a man to cast out his hand or eye (or whatever) if it sins…” (or something like this), and “it is better for a man to marry if he lusts… or whatever…”. And when he pardoned a prostitute with her sin, He clearly said “go but sin no more…”
So,
for Methodi:… God did not intentionally make prostitutes for men to have sexual relations out of marriage or out of self-control…
for MarieCB:…If I have a husband, I wouldn’t be suggesting to my husband the possibility of his brothers to have sex with me in case he dies, just because it happened in the old testament (although I believe you were only teasing then?)
for everybody else:… regardless of whether its in the bible or not, regardless of Tamar & Judah’s story, such things are not applicable anymore if we call ourselves Christians, since Christ’s teachings never subscribe to this…Christ’s morality on sexuality is very clear in the new testament, so whatever God did in the old testament is as good as “erased” already, if we believe that God and Jesus Christ are one and the same person, as Jesus Christ Himself said so…
Yes, if there are contradicting stories in the bible, its between some rules in the old and the new testaments…and sex morality rules are one of this.
I do believe that God did almost a 180 degree turnabout in some of his rules and ways between the old and the new testaments…