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hi sandusky in Ezecheil 18:19-24 it is not the mosaic law that is being written but the word of the Lord.His word is His law.
**Ezekiel 18:19hi sandusky in Ezecheil 18:19-24 it is not the mosaic law that is being written but the word of the Lord.His word is His law.
But doesn’t the phrase “He shall live” mean salvation? The Mosaic Covenant couldn’t bring life, so Ezekiel could not be talking about the OT Law.Ezekiel 18:19
“Yet you say, ‘Why should the son not bear the punishment for the father’s iniquity?’ When the son has practiced justice and righteousness and has observed all My statutes and done them, he shall surely live.As I said, practicing justice and righteousness is done by observing all of God’s statutes, which are just and righteous; correct?
As I further stated, that doesn’t mean that one is perfect, and sinless (Php 3:6ff; cf 1 Tim 1:15).
At that time, those statutes are found in the Mosaic law; correct?.
That is seen in Eze 33:12-20 as well. Note in that passage that justice and righteousness is again equated with keeping God’s statutes vv 15-16.
First of all, the thrust of the chapter is accountability—each person is accountable for his own sin. Ezekiel states the principle in v4. Ezekiel also counters the idea that salvation is a matter of storing up merit during a lifetime, and using that merit to balance out one’s iniquities (v 24).But doesn’t the phrase “He shall live” mean salvation? The Mosaic Covenant couldn’t bring life, so Ezekiel could not be talking about the OT Law.
Please post more carefully…rants are not well received.
Since you believe in OSAS, please be advised that I have researched over sixty passages of scripture that deny the teaching. There have even been books written rebutting it by non-Catholics that also recognize it as a flawed doctrine.
Obviously, the elect are those that persevere. Not all that receive the grace of justification will necessarily persevere.
The elect are indeed washed, sanctified, justified, and glorified. There are those that are washed, sanctified, and justified that do not persevere and are not glorified. In the end they are not saved.
The apostle Peter makes this quite clear.
2 Peter 2:20-22
For if, after they have escaped the defilements of the world by the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, they are again entangled in them and are overcome, the last state has become worse for them than the first. For it would be better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn away from the holy commandment handed on to them. It has happened to them according to the true proverb, “A dog returns to its vomit,” and, “A sow, after washing, returns to wallowing in the mire.”
What you fail to grasp is that the New and Old Covenants have something in common. Both have requirements. The difference is that the OT Law had no intrinsic power to save. Paul even tells us why the Jews were unable to fulfill the Old Law. In Romans 9:32 Paul says that they failed, “Because they did not pursue it through faith, but as if it were based on works. They have stumbled over the stumbling stone.” In other words they were not placing all of their trust in God and depending on God’s grace through faith.…
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You’re correct, no one lives by the law, as that was/is not the purpose of the law; all of the saints through all of history have been saved by grace, through faith, in God (alone).
IOW, they were justified on the basis of the then future covenant mediated by Christ, through his blood—the gospel preached to Abraham, and unilateral (Gen 12:3; ch 15; cf Gal 3:7-9).
Nevertheless, at Sinai, and mediated through Moses, God made a covenant with Israel based upon the laws given to them. That covenant was bilateral; IOW, God promised to bless Israel, if they kept His law, and He promised to curse them, if they didn’t.
Israel said, “We will keep your law,” and, they didn’t.
Be that as it may, justice and righteousness in the OT is equated with keeping the external law, and, as has been shown by Paul’s statement, one can do that and be blameless (Php 3:6ff), while still being the “foremost of all sinners” (1 Tim 1:15).
It is important to make the distinction between the Old, and New Covenant—Paul does
(Rom 4:15, 16; 10:1-4). Those who died under the law, died by the law; those who lived under the law, lived by grace (cf Galatians).
I am not sure if we disagree or not. I would certainly agree that “the matter is probably far more complicated & far more interesting & dynamic” than we realize. Explaining things, however, is not always clear. Likewise, none of us can understand the mind of God beyond looking through a glass dimly.I’m puzzled already
Regarding this: “…the elect are those that persevere…” - they can’t persevere if they do not receive grace, to which in turn they could not correspond without grace. One is assuming (wrongly ?) that they are operate in a linear sequence, like dominoes; the truth of the matter is probably far more complicated & far more interesting & dynamic. Election is in that way a bit like a guillotine - God does it, & only He, so the infinite regress is chopped off before it can begin. Unless one takes a Molinist position - & not all Catholics do - it’s not clear how one can avoid confessing that election is totally gratuitous, is totally of grace. As even the merits of the just have no foundation but grace, & are not strictly speaking meritorious, but are meritorious only in a diluted sense, ISTM that the difference between Catholics & Reformed is largely of emphasis.![]()
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Some problems: the Catholic doctrine seems to imply that God can be thwarted in His electing purpose. If even one elect person can be lost, doesn’t this imply that God is limited ? And if He cannot save all the elect, even though He wishes to, this implies either that His promises are unreliable, or that He is not sincere - the very objection so often made against the Reformed doctrine regarding His Will. TULIP (apart from the foreordination of the reprobate which IMHO is abstractly credible but seems to owe more to symmetry than to Christ & Scripture) seems to deal with these issues much better than we have - so far. (ISTM the argument based on 2 Peter passage is not irrefutable, so I’ll leave it.)
I am not sure if we disagree or not. I would certainly agree that “the matter is probably far more complicated & far more interesting & dynamic” than we realize. Explaining things, however, is not always clear. Likewise, none of us can understand the mind of God beyond looking through a glass dimly.
I agree that everything is by grace, but one must never forget that grace does not abolish free will.
OSAS thinkers frequently express thoughts that go in that direction or sometimes in the opposite direction. When the latter occurs, the OSAS believers even go so far as to suggest that sinning is immaterial because you’re simply saved. Pure Calvinism is more logical, nuanced, and sophisticated than modern day OSAS.
My argument was not “Since Paul uses a “plural” you, he is exclusively talking about the Phillipians.” The actual argument was that Philippians 1:7 gives context to and explains verse 6 and this is further illustrated by other passages in Phillipians. He gives specific reasons why he was confident that God would complete the work he started *in them *. These specific reasons indicate that Paul was not trying to make a general statement about all true Christians because these reasons are unique to the Phillipians. Their persevering love for the Gospel, their support of Paul during his imprisonment, and their extraordinary generosity made Paul feel confident that at least in their case, God would complete the work He had begun. I brought up the “plural you” to point out the fact that he is not speaking to an individual Phillipian, but to the Phillipians in general. It was a minor point. But instead of responding to the main argument, my opponent latched on to this minor point - which was only one sentence in my post - distorted it and created a scenario that was favorable for him. That’s sad.Now let’s look at one of the passages in question in context:
Philipians 1:3-8
3I thank my God in all my remembrance of you,
4always offering prayer with joy in my every prayer for you all,
5in view of your participation in the gospel from the first day until now.
6For I am confident of this very thing, that He who began a good work in you will perfect it until the day of Christ Jesus. 7For it is only right for me to feel this way about you all, because I have you in my heart, since both in my imprisonment and in the defense and confirmation of the gospel, you all are partakers of grace with me.
8For God is my witness, how I long for you all with the affection of Christ Jesus.
On what does he base his confidence? On the absolute assurance that all believers will persevere and thus God will complete his work in them? No! First of all, he points out their persevering spirit in verse 5. That is always a good sign that one may be among those who are elect to glory. Secondly, he says in verse 7 that the reason he feels that way is because of the deep affection he has for them and the constant support they have given to him during his imprisonment and to the Gospel. He later says to the Philippians: (4:14-18)
14Nevertheless, you have done well to share with me in my affliction.
15You yourselves also know, Philippians, that at the first preaching of the gospel, after I left Macedonia, no church shared with me in the matter of giving and receiving but you alone;
16for even in Thessalonica you sent a gift more than once for my needs.
17Not that I seek the gift itself, but I seek for the profit which increases to your account.
18But I have received everything in full and have an abundance; I am amply supplied, having received from Epaphroditus what you have sent, a fragrant aroma, an acceptable sacrifice, well-pleasing to God.
The Phillipians have shared in Paul’s suffering and have shown extraordinary generosity in their support of Paul’s ministry and the gospel. Is there any wonder why Paul would be so confident in a church that has demonstrated such great love for the Gospel?
Moreover, the confidence he is expressing is regarding the Phillipians in general - the Greek word for “you” is pural. He is not making a statement regarding all Christians in all of the world and throughout history.
To be continued…
God Bless,
Michael
Hi GottleofGeer! I just have to disagree with this point - and please correct me if I’m misunderstanding you. The Catholic Church teaches that the number of those predestined to glory is immutable, thus none can be added and none can be lost. Where we differ from the Reformed is that we do not believe that justifying grace is limited to those predestined to glory, an idea condemned as heretical by the Council of Trent, and that no one can has absolute assurance that they are among those predestined to glory, unless they’ve received a special revelation. We believe that there are those who are predestined to grace, but not to glory. Thus the fact that there will be genuine Christians who fall from grace in no way thwarts God’s electing purpose. The fact that they definitively fall from grace (i.e. cease to abide in Christ, thrown away, dries up, and cast in the fire and burned), indicates that they were not among those predestined to glory. Their fall from grace is no more a failure on the part of God then the fall of Satan, the Fall of Man, and the existence of sin.Some problems: the Catholic doctrine seems to imply that God can be thwarted in His electing purpose. If even one elect person can be lost, doesn’t this imply that God is limited ? And if He cannot save all the elect, even though He wishes to, this implies either that His promises are unreliable, or that He is not sincere - the very objection so often made against the Reformed doctrine regarding His Will.
I didn’t have the time to respond to this one yesterday. First of all, any “explaining” of my posts I do it in the thread, where it can be seen by everyone. What we think of others is often a projection of our own methods and way of thinking. Second of all, the above person completely took something I said out of its context and distorted it to the point that it was completely unrecognizable to me, creating a very convenient way of evading the real challenges. Third, this person has the habit of insulting his opponent’s intelligence, demonizing them, and thus attempting to destroy their credibility. Why? When you can’t attack an argument, attack the person. The more desperate you are, the more shrill you become, the Clinton campaign being a good example. That these tactics come from a person who claims to be a true Christian is ironic, particularly when you consider this person’s signature. Now this person has decided to return to his policy of ignoring me.I’m certain that you’ve been PMing certain of your fellows like crazy attempting to explain it away, and to complain that I’m being unfair, and what-not, but I’m not fooled by it; IMO, my critique of your methods is accurate, and it’s not the first time I’ve critiqued you in the same manner. IMO, your methods are dishonest, and deceitful, and my opinion of that has not changed. That’s why I’ve been ignoring your posts since October, and why I will continue that shortly.
How timely! We just had the Concecration of the Elect and the nomination of the catecumens last Sunday. However, I am sure the catecumens will be saved if they die before becoming the Elect.This is to continue from the
You mean, In your opinion they do.Since certain passages in Ezekiel have surfaced in this thread, i would like to discuss them. These passages are about personal responsibility for one’s sins, but they also contradict the Calvinist notion of perseverance of the saints.
All of the elect are justified by the grace of God in eternity past Rom 8:30, and Ezekiel 33 which you cite is an echo of the prophets statements in chapter 18.Now the first objection some might raise is that this is Old Testament. However, was the way of becoming righteous before God different in the Old Covenant. Was man, prior to the New Covenant, not justified by the grace of God? It is clear from Hebrews 11 that God’s grace was at work in both the Old and New Covenants to make man righteous. The means of salvation were the same, though explicit knowledge of Jesus did not exist prior to His incarnation.
The other objection is that the “righteous” involved are not really righteous before God. They are merely righteous before men or “legally” righteous. However, it is God who identifies the person as righteous in this passage. Moreover, there is another passage in Ezekiel that completely contradicts this interpretation