H
HashemEchad
Guest
What he was doing was amplifying the already-existing Torah.Of course he takes things from Jewish sources, he was a Jew afterall. I like where he fufills the law, then justifies it to it’s time, then intevenes with the law that supercedes it. An eye for an eye for example, replaced with love your enemy, turning the other cheek, and the like, a much more peacful approach towards how to deal with transgressors, he in a nutshell is saying vengance is the Lords, that to rely upon him for these matters puts you more in line with God, for God is the only true judge. It makes alot of sense, for maiming your enemy for what they have done to you, doesn’t bring back the eye that was taken from you in the first place, it was meant to end the madness, yet at the same time, the original law was there in order to allow the Jews to survive in that time, for the world was a different place and it had to accomodate a different law, otherwise, they would have been wiped off of the face of the planet by their enemies.
I’d like to know, what is it that was explained about the Messiah, that was not fufilled by Christ? What element do you think was missing?
As for your question, the Christian concept of “messiah” is quite different from the Jewish concept. For one, we believe the real Messiah will get everything done in one coming; he won’t need two.
Furthermore, for us, the Messiah will not be divine, but mortal.
For us, Jesus could not be the Messiah for other reasons as well…for instance, Christians claim he fulfilled the Torah, yet in several passages of the NT he told his followers to violate Jewish Law (telling them to harvest grain on the Sabbath, for one example.)
He also made prophecies which did not come true (such as in Mt 24, when he said that THAT generation would not pass away (die) until everything he foretold would be fulfilled.)