C
CutlerB
Guest
OK so I read the Pope’s letter, and I cannot figure out how this article got to that conclusion
Here is the relevant part of the letter:
“So I come to the three questions you put to me in the article of August 7. It seems to me that, in the first two, what is in your heart is to understand the attitude of the Church to those who don’t share faith in Jesus. First of all, you ask me if the God of Christians forgives one who doesn’t believe and doesn’t seek the faith. Premise that – and it’s the fundamental thing – the mercy of God has no limits if one turns to him with a sincere and contrite heart; the question for one who doesn’t believe in God lies in obeying one’s conscience. Sin, also for those who don’t have faith, exists when one goes against one’s conscience. To listen to and to obey it means, in fact, to decide in face of what is perceived as good or evil. And on this decision pivots the goodness or malice of our action.”
He never said non-believers would go to heaven.
Help me out here…where is this stated?
But doesn’t that presume a properly formed conscience? Why can’t an abortophile claim that her “conscience” allows her to kill her child?
A properly formed continence must be presumed, even if he Holy Father didn’t spell it out.
I was wondering about all of that too. Simply obeying one’s conscience doesn’t mean that’s good. As YoungTradCath said, following a conscience that tells you “go, kill that guy” or “abort your child” results in sin. On the other hand, I do see a point in saying that not obeying one’s conscience is sin, which leads to a “lose-lose” situation. Therefore, a properly formed conscience must be presumed in what the Holy Father says.But how can a properly formed conscience exist outside of the Church?
