You say I read into the Matthew 1:25 meaning not there. Okay, help me understand the following and please don’t avoid answering ‘yes’ or ‘no’. After your ‘yes’ or ‘no’ feel free to comment
** Mt 2:13 Now when they had departed, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream, saying, “Arise, take the young Child and His mother, flee to Egypt, and stay there until
<2193- hoes> I bring you word; for Herod will seek the young Child to destroy Him.”**
– Did Joseph, Mary and Jesus stay in Egypt? Yes or No.
Asked and answered previously. no.
** Mt 2:15 and was there until <2193> the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, “Out of Egypt I called My Son.”**
– Again, did Joseph, Mary and Jesus stay in Egypt?
Asked and answered previously. No
** Mt 17:9 Now as they came down from the mountain, Jesus commanded them, saying, “Tell the vision to no one until <2193> the Son of Man is risen from the dead.”**
– Did Jesus intend for the vision to be kept secret after He was raised from the dead?
Asked and answered. No.
Mt 1:25 and did not know her till <2193> she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name JESUS.
– Notice this verse is very much like the first three. Is it reading into this verse the same type of meaning that is in the first three?
Yes you are reading into this, because there are many other verses using the word till or until (interchangeable) that do NOT signify the antithesis coming. The bible is a whole, not pieces. It must be taken as such. Please do not take a few examples that match your views and exclude the ones that do not.
Let’s think about the term ‘first born’. I’ve asked a question before and I haven’t seen a response. I’ll give the answer now — I asked if God had more than one Begotten Son and if we know the answer, how do we know? The answer is that He had only One Begotten Son and we know because the Holy Spirit clearly said ‘Only Begotten Son’ several times.
----- IS IT READING into the verse, in light of the fact the Holy Spirit made it real clear God only had One Begotten Son that if The Holy Spirit used ‘first born Son’ that Jesus was Mary’s first son but not the last?
Asked and answered. Firstborn refers to the the womb opener, not the first of many. It was a title, not a descriptive term. Do not impose your views into the bible Check with history for what things like this mean before you decide what you think they mean.