I agree that Paul’s letters were treated as scripture.
I agree that Paul prophesied.
The foundation for my argument says nothing about whether Paul prophesied about other things or that his writings were considered scripture.
My claims is that 2 Tim 3:14-17 speaks of scripture as profitable and not to the exclusion of anything else.
Let me ask.
Is Love profitable, necessary for becoming perfect?
Is Faith profitable, necessary for becoming perfect?
Honestly? No. You don’t even believe what it says in English. If I were to explain the Greek to you, you’d do the same thing you’re doing now.
I’m giving you my understanding of the scripture.
Here I stand. I cannot do otherwise. So help me, God. Amen
By your theology I have the right to my interpretation, right?
I’ve studied the text and the history and your defense of your position does not sway me.
Who are you to tell me that my interpretation is wrong.
The Greek word ophelimos (“profitable”) used in verse 16 means “useful” not “sufficient.” An example of this difference would be to say that water is useful for our existence – even necessary – but it is not sufficient; that is, it is not the only thing we need to survive. We also need food, clothing, shelter, etc. Likewise, Scripture is useful in the life of the believer, but it was never meant to be the only source of Christian teaching, the only thing needed for believers.
The Greek word pasa, which is often rendered as “all,” actually means “every,” and it has the sense of referring to each and every one of the class denoted by the noun connected with it. In other words, the Greek reads in a way which indicates that each and every “Scripture” is profitable. If the doctrine of Sola Scriptura were true, then based on Greek verse 16, each and every book of the Bible could stand on its own as the sole rule of faith, a position which is obviously absurd.
And where you continue to deny what is there.
I’m the one that is reading the verse plainly.
I’m only taking it at face value.
Scripture is profitable and is something to make us complete.
I’ve already shown you that this can’t mean ‘only’ scripture, since scripture also lists steadfastness as another thing to complete us, make us perfect.
I doubt you consider yourself complete unless you also have love.
2 Tim 3:14-17
[14] But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have firmly believed, knowing from whom you learned it
[15] and how from childhood you have been acquainted with the sacred writings which are able to instruct you for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.
[16] All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness,
[17] that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.
Come to think of it, since you are perfect, you don’t need scripture to help you be taught, reproved, corrected, or trained in righteousness.
Why? First of all, you wouldn’t accept it. Second, what would be the point when we don’t get our doctrine from the 7th century, but from scripture.
The point is that you said the teaching has been taught for 2,000 years now.
I just picked one point in time for you to show me proof.
michel