Of course the Old Testament has to identify Jesus uniquely. How would you expect the Pharisees during Jesus’ time to identify him?? Most of the NT was not even written.
The problem is that they did not want to accept it.
They said the words but did not believe.
They tested Him any and every way they could and they were left in awe of His powers and abilities.
The Old Testament says that the Messiah will come and free Israel from sin that the blind will see, that the lame would walk…
When John the Baptist was nearing his death he wanted his disciples to follow Jesus but since they were very attached to him he sent them to ask Jesus if He was the One that was going to come (the Messiah) here’s Jesus’ reply:
“Go back and tell John what you hear and see; the blind see again, and the lame walk, lepers are cleansed, and the deaf hear, and the dead are raised to life and the Good News is proclaimed to the poor; and happy is the man who does not lose faith in me.” (Mt 11:4-6)
This is an example of what the Pharisees and Sadducees (and all of Israel) experienced during Jesus’ Messianic Mision.
Today, those Jews which I have had an exchange with suggest that (I will paraphrase): “hey, no problem, other sages or rabbi have done the same…”
It seems that they are right… but only technically… for you see, these were all commanded by Yahweh God to perform such miracles. And the miracles themselves were limited to a very few examples. Conversely, Jesus performed hundreds of such miracles. Not only that but He empowered His Disciples to do the same!
And, as far as I can remember, there’s not a single account of a prophet/sage/rabbi encountering Satan or his minions and commanding them (I do not mean an exorcism).
Everything in Scriptures that points to Jesus was refused by them; even when God’s words came out of their own mouths, they just refused to understand. Yet, this too is in the Holy Scriptures; it was necessary for Israel (not the Remnant) to reject the Rock which Yahweh God Chose as the Corner Stone so that the Gentiles could have the opportunity to come into the Fullness of God. (Read Romans 9 through 11:33)
I was referring to the verses in Deuteronomy 18, where Moses told of a future prophet who is like him; this point was emphasized twice. Does the prophet have to be the Messiah or vice versa? Is it suggested in the OT that both are the same person? Moreover, how can Jesus be just “like Moses”? Isn’t Jesus higher than Moses? If so, why didn’t Deuteronomy speak of a prophet higher than Moses?
You must go beyond human reason.
Moses is speaking prophetically… who was Moses? the giver of the Law; the political leader, the high priest, the prophet, and even a god ("…I will make you a god to pharaoh…"); so he prophesied that out of Israel there would come a prophet as himself: the Messiah, the Immanuel, the Servant, the Prophet, the High Priest, the King, the Fulfillment of the Law!
Now, if you are asking me why Yahweh God is not more direct in how He presents Himself to Israel and to the Gentiles… well… I must confess that my finite mind is not able to comprehend His Will… I simply take Him on His Word: “He is my Son, listen to Him!”
I suggest that you revisit Hebrews 11–it is all about Faith!
Maran atha!
Angel