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FaithofAbraham
Guest
You just used a wrong reference to Isaiah because it fits with your argument, now are trying to deny it. I think we’re done, I refuse to try to have an honest discussion all by myself.What i quoted is the Bible , both OT and NT…not one word of tradition…you know in your heart how poor your reply based on translation and personal remarks is compared to the scriptures i presented (a few even) where parallelism is clear to anyone who has eyes to see and ears to listen.The authors knew very well what they were writing and they knew very well the parallelism is not lost to those who want to understand. Use any translation you want, the context is the same : the Father and His Word are One.
to understand the I AM statement of Jesus, you must be familiar with contexts in both OT and NT.While the words ‘I am’ may not be profound in themselves, the way that they are formulated in John points the reader to thr OT for a correct understanding of who Jesus is.
Isaiah 43:10-12
“You are My witnesses,” declares the Lord, "And My servant whom I have chosen, In order that you may know and believe Me, And understand that I am.John 13:1-19
"From now on I am telling you before it comes to pass, so that when it does occur, you may believe that I am.
Here Jesus is talking about being the Messiah who is betrayed by his friend (Judas), son of David that David prophesied of. Nothing to do with being God.
Psalms 41:9 Yea, mine own familiar friend, in whom I trusted, which did eat of my bread, hath lifted up his heel against me.
John 13:18-19 I speak not of you all: I know whom I have chosen: but that the scripture may be fulfilled, He that eateth bread with me hath lifted up his heel against me. Now I tell you before it come, that, when it is come to pass, ye may believe that I am he.
And it’s like that with all of these things. You speak of correct context and then ignore it.![]()