G
guanophore
Guest
Not having had studies for Holy Orders, I can only go from what I have learned as a layperson. It is my understanding that the Rite of Annointing contains the remission of sins. There are some sicknesses that emanate from mortal sin or demonic influence that only respond to the grace dispensed in the sacrament:So, respectfully, what’s the difference between the Sacramental healing (of the Annointing of the Sick) and the type that occurs during charismatic prayer meetings? Of course, the final ‘healing’ may occur, for both, but I’m asking where the difference lies (besides one being conducted by a priest and the other not).
James 5:14-16
14 Are any among you sick? They should call for the elders of the church and have them pray over them, anointing them with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 The prayer of faith will save the sick, and the Lord will raise them up; and anyone who has committed sins will be forgiven. 16 Therefore confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another, so that you may be healed.
The reason that the elders (priests) must be called is that they are able to hear confession, and forgive mortal sins.
In a prayer meeting, we can confess our sins, and pray for one another, but if it is a mortal sin, it requires the sacrament.
1 John 5:15-17
16 If you see your brother or sister committing what is not a mortal sin, you will ask, and God will give life to such a one — to those whose sin is not mortal. There is sin that is mortal; I do not say that you should pray about that. 17 All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not mortal.
As laypeople, we can help one another with our wrongdoings, and to live a more godly life. But a person who is in mortal sin needs the sacrament. Praying about it will not reach it. Now, it is possible that a person may make a perfect confession, and be healed without the sacrament, because God is not bound by the sacrament. However, it is better not to wonder!
I think it is a good question, but I don’t think the sacraments can be “bypassed”. God has ordained certain persons for certain gifts. He instructs us to avail ourselves of these gifts.I’m just asking, because I want to understand how that doesn’t undermine the Sacramental way to healing…when it can be bypassed for another?
Yes.I am a believer in the fact that God has given priests a power that he has given to no one else “in the order of Melkezidek”.
The laypeople are not excluded from the work of the ministry. There is much that we can do that is non-sacramental.And that the purpose of the priesthood is, mainly, the dispensing of God’s Sacraments (His way of conveying grace). And I do believe that God intended the Church to do that work (via the succession of the Apostles and the laying of hands).
The dispensation of God’s grace is not confined to the Sacraments. We can be assured of receiving it there, but it can be available in other ways as well.It just confuses me…if that’s the chosen way (as Catholics we believe this)…that grace is conveyed (through the priest)…which is biblical…then how do these two forms of (unequal) healing requests, co-exist harmoniously?..without one stepping on the other.
I don’t see how it can, really. There is no substitute for the sacramental way of receiving grace.Maybe I’m confusing the issue, and it’s not as if I don’t believe that love exists in and outside of the Church and its Magesterium, and that the love and faith of Christans cannot result in miraculous intervention…it’s just that I do not really understand how this doesn’t effect the Sacramental way of conveying grace.
OK.This is an example of my cynicism toward what Charismatics do and how they do it.