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famdigy
Guest
why was it allowed again after having been prohibited. In fact if you read the hadiths about temporary marriage at the conquest of Makah, not only was it allowed, the prophet ordered them to contract temporary marriage. If the purpose of the initial prohibition is to abolish a pre-islamic tradition, the subsequest allowance of the marriage defeats that purpose.It was a practice of the people before Islam. Many such practices were allowed initially (by absence of prohibition) and then later forbidden.
why would the prophet order the companions to contract temporary marriage 2 years after he forbade it. With other pre-islamic traditions, alcohol for example, the prophet never forbade it then allowed it