I read the tafsir
There are a couple of things that need to be pointed out.
WIthout the hadith it is impossible to conclude that this verse forbids mut’ah.
On that contrary, you naturally conclude that the verse
allows muta’h.
To use ahadith to interpret the verse is dangerous, to forbid what was known to be allowed based on this interpretation is even more dangerous.
Ideally a verse is taken to mean what is the simplest meaning.
If that meaning is supported by another verse, then even better.
Also when you consider this verse there are 2 portions to it.
- The portion that forbids
Also (forbidden are) women already married
AND
2) The portion that allows
except those (captives and slaves) whom your right hands possess;
All others are lawful (with the following conditions
condition 1
provided you seek with Mahr;
condition 2
desiring chastity, not committing illegal sexual intercourse;
condition 3 (specific for mut’ah wives)
so with those of whom you have enjoyed sexual relations, give them their Mahr as prescribed;
condition 4
but if after a Mahr is prescribed, you agree mutually (to give more), there is no sin on you
I see your point, don’t get me wrong.
But when you look at the logical flow of the verse, it is hard to reach the interpretation you use.