Grace & Peace!
I need to ask a question and would like an honest answer:
Is it the argument of the pro-homosexual posters that the Catholic Church should ignore the biblical teachings of homosexuality as being an abomination? Or is it their position that the Church should ignore some sins and absolve those who commit them and change the belief doctrine of the Church?
Hi Diane. This is a good question and the answer is a bit complicated. I will not speak for others, only myself.
To be honest, I don’t want the RCC to ignore
anything. That includes Scripture, Tradition, Reason, experience, and the latest in medical and scientific findings. If it ignored nothing, then the Roman Church would be compelled by its findings to change some fundamental aspects of its doctrine regarding homosexuals. Why? Not because moral truth has changed, not because that truth depends on science or experience or anything else, but because there are some basic flaws (that have been discussed earlier in this thread) in how Rome views homosexuality and, consequently, on how it provides moral guidance to those who are homosexuals.
What is the root problem? Contrary to lived experience and the consensus of the scientific and medical communities, Rome does not believe that homosexuality is, in fact, a sexuality. It defines it as an inclination. The inclination to a heterosexual act is not objectively disordered, but the inclination to a homosexual act is. Why? Because homosexuality does not represent a viable sexuality in the eyes of Rome, only a sinful psychological inclination
separate from the homosexual’s sexuality which is understood, in fact, to be heterosexual.
This puts homosexuals in an awkward position–they
know that their sexuality is oriented toward the same sex. They
know that their sexuality cannot thus represent anything disordered, otherwise, Rome’s basic view that sexuality is an integral part of the human person and related to all aspects of human wholeness, would be untrue and human wholeness would be impossible for homosexuals. I.e., by virtue of their sexuality (which is represented by the homosexual inclination) they themselves would be objectively disordered in a way and to a degree that heterosexuals are not. And unless one believes in double predestination, such a belief would be anathema to one’s religious beliefs.
Rome
must, therefore, acknowledge that homosexuality is an
actual sexuality and then proceed from there, otherwise, it risks placing itself back in the position it was in with regard to geocentrism at the dawn of the Copernican revolution. The idea that the homosexual inclination is objectively disordered must be abandoned as contrary to Rome’s fundamental understanding of the relationship between seuxality and all aspects of the human person (as is mentioned in the catechism). Whether or not homosexual acts are disordered would arise from this more accurate understanding of human sexuality.
I hope this answers your question, at least in part.
Under the Mercy,
Mark
All is grace and mercy! Deo gratias!