The Church teaches that women cannot be priests because of the example set by Jesus in selecting the apostles. So why are women allowed communion?

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As far as we know the Twelve were the only ones that Jesus personally ordained as priests. Does that mean no other men, ever, could be priests? Or were they only the first?

Only men were present at the Last Supper. In no way does that mean only men were permitted to receive the Eucharist. The Twelve were only to first to receive.
Well we know of 70 more…

Luke 10

After this the Lord appointed seventy others, and sent them on ahead of him, two by two, into every town and place where he himself was about to come.
 
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Because it could suggest that God does not recognise females to be as worthy as males to preform the Sacraments of his church.
Neither are worthy. That would imply that men deserve the ability. They don’t, and neither do we.
 
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Why would we have faith that God would use a woman to do the same when there is no precedent for it in the O.T. or the N.T.?
There is no evidence that Jesus did not appoint some women, nor was he recorded as having taught that only men were to carry out ministry until he comes again.
Do you think that it means there is something unworthy about women in that God doesn’t call them to the priesthood?
I don’t think woman are unworthy, but from some of the history I have read concerning how men and woman should have their roles, I can see how the church has grown in it’s understanding.
Is there something unworthy about men in that God left them out of the Incarnation?
No because it’s biologically impossible.
 
There is no evidence that Jesus did not appoint some women, nor was he recorded as having taught that only men were to carry out ministry until he comes again.
You’re right. There is no evidence that he did not. However, there is no evidence that he did but there IS evidence that he called the twelve apostles (all men).
Is there something unworthy about men in that God left them out of the Incarnation?

No because it’s biologically impossible.
Would it have been biologically impossible? Could God have preserved both a man and a woman at their conceptions to be free from original sin and sent an angel to announce to them they were called to be the parents of Christ, who would take on his human flesh from them?
The role of women at the seder is the same as the role of men—to recount, discuss and delve into the miracle of the Exodus and how it relates to us today.
But an important difference is that the lamb they ate at that meal would have been sacrificed at the temple by male priests. Christ was the lamb at the Last Supper.
 
No, but are men lesser for not being able to give birth? Is their celebacy lesser in the eyes of God than a woman’s?
 
There is no evidence that Jesus did not appoint some women, nor was he recorded as having taught that only men were to carry out ministry until he comes again.
Nowhere in Scripture will we find the statement “And Jesus never appointed women to be his priests.”
Not do we find the statement: “And Jesus never, during His time in the world, went to Rome to talk with the Emperor.”

Lack of evidence is not evidence.
 
I never know what to say when asked a question like this, but no men are not lesser for not being able to give birth because they always participate in the creation of new life.
 
Would it have been biologically impossible? Could God have preserved both a man and a woman at their conceptions to be free from original sin and sent an angel to announce to them they were called to be the parents of Christ, who would take on his human flesh from them?
God can do whatever he wishes 😃

But I think the whole story needs to make some kind of sense from the fall to the birth of Jesus as the new Adam.
 
Yes that’s been pointed out, baptism in only un-usual circumstance. If then why not as part of the ministerial priesthood too?
Is there something that happens in a un-usual circumstance that allows a woman or lay man for that matter to be able to baptise a person that doesn’t exist for the lay woman or man who are not ordained?
 
Yes this priest just talks about gender role.
Well, he talks about fatherhood and motherhood which is something much more theologically profound than mere gender roles.
 
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Well, not always. Christ being the exeception.

What about male virgins? Is a man’s virginity inferior to a woman’s virginity?
 
Yes that’s been pointed out, baptism in only un-usual circumstance. If then why not as part of the ministerial priesthood too?

Is there something that happens in a un-usual circumstance that allows a woman or lay man for that matter to be able to baptise a person that doesn’t exist for the lay woman or man who are not ordained?
Baptism can be performed by lay persons not so much even in unusual situations but certainly by necessity. The ordinary minister is a bishop or priest. There is a whole Rite of Baptism that the Church follows that involves the reading of the Gospel, a short homily, a prayer of exorcism, anointing with oil, a blessing for the mother, father and assembly etc. There is also the issue of proper record keeping so that the baptized can receive the other sacraments of initiation.

What would be the purpose of having lay persons baptize when there isn’t a necessity? If a bishop or priest can do it as part of their duties to the faithful in ordinary circumstances what would be the reason to bring in lay persons to do it?
 
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Is there something that happens in a un-usual circumstance that allows a woman or lay man for that matter to be able to baptise a person that doesn’t exist for the lay woman or man who are not ordained?
Immediate danger of death, and the desire of the endangered person (if past the age of reason) to be baptized.
 
Well, he talks about fatherhood and motherhood which is something much more theologically profound than mere gender roles.
He talks about men as fathers and priests, something that doesn’t happen in our religion (except in converts) this was a Jewish practise in Jesus’ day, though I do not know much about it.

In any case one need only read parts of The Summa Theologiæ of St. Thomas Aquinas to get an idea of why the teaching of the ministerial priesthood is reserved for men only.

Article 1. Whether the female sex is an impediment to receiving Orders?

Wherefore even though a woman were made the object of all that is done in conferring Orders, she would not receive Orders, for since a sacrament is a sign, not only the thing, but the signification of the thing, is required in all sacramental actions; thus it was stated above (Supplement:32:2) that in Extreme Unction it is necessary to have a sick man, in order to signify the need of healing. Accordingly, since it is not possible in the female sex to signify eminence of degree, for a woman is in the state of subjection, it follows that she cannot receive the sacrament of Order.

http://www.newadvent.org/summa/5039.htm
 
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