The Universal Church

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And removed 7 books from the OT.

I can’t trust someone who’d alter Sacred Scripture. That alone destroys Luther’s credibility as both a translator and exegete.
That was a huge one for me as well. Jesus said his words are life and they are spirit. He said heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will never pass away. This tells me there won’t be any confusion on the canon throughout the life of the Church,

So looking at it from Luther’s time frame – Christians thought those 7 semi-disputed books were scripture for a thousand years or more. They were read in Mass. They are found in the Gutenberg bible which predates Luther. And we are supposed to believe that God allowed this to go on for that long? If it were true, God would raise up a reformer long before Luther to settle the matter. Because he cares about and preserves his word.

Same issue I had while debating Muslims who believe the Christian scriptures have been corrupted. It really takes a leap of faith to come to that sort of conclusion.
 
Just a quick couple of thoughts.
2 Tim. 1: 11: Wherein I am appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and teacher of the Gentiles.
Paul was the one appointed a preacher, and an apostle to the Gentiles, directly by Christ on the road to Damascus. Paul is referring to himself in this passage, not Timothy.
Titus 1: 4 et seq.: To Titus my beloved son, according to the common faith, grace and peace from God the Father, and from Christ Jesus our Saviour. For this cause I left thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in order the things that are wanting, and shouldest ordain priests in every city, as I also appointed thee:
I’m not sure what version you are using but every version I’ve read, from the (KJV, NASB, NIV, ESV) uses the word “elders” instead of priest. There is no doubt that Paul and the Apostles appointed leaders over the first local gatherings of the church. The term elder and bishop are synonymous and they simply mean overseer or leader. They did not convey a priestly function (offering sacrifices on behalf on the people) until sacramental theology was developed in later centuries.
 
So looking at it from Luther’s time frame – Christians thought those 7 semi-disputed books were scripture for a thousand years or more.
I would say “some Christians thought those 7 semi-disputed books were scripture for a thousand years or more”. But I would also say “some Christians didn’t think those 7 semi-disputed books were scripture for a thousand years or more.” There was still debate over those books in Luther’s time.
 
These men were appointed by Saint Paul to continue his work. Bishops do the work of Apostles and missionaries of the Faith. Priests are their assistants and deputies in their apostolic work.
Using exact wording to try to defeat the Spirit of the Word through making unnecessary distinctions in exact wording that ruin the plain sense reading.
So I "ruined the plain sense reading " when i said the apostles appointed bishops/ presbyters to oversee the churches they founded ? I think you did when you said these appointments did work of missionaries and apostles, as if they traveled, from church to church.
No one is denying that all offices are for the benefit of the flock, whose jobs are interconnected. Do you also disagree with the Catholic historian O’ malley who wrote an apostle is a distinct office from bishop/ presbyter?
Do you also disagree with those who said at the time of apostolic writings the term “bishop” and “presbyter” were interchangeable?
As to the term “successor”, which began our semantic dialogue, am i ruining the Catholic sense of reading that bothers you, that reads beyond teaching/ preaching (feeding/ guiding) , so that one successor must be rock and key holder leader, to the exclusion of others, as if one succession line was to be “treasurer” as was Judas/ Matthias, each apostle imprinting his specific role he held as one of the twelve,etc., etc.?
Please explain to me why you believe the Upon this rock passage is uncertain in its interpretation.
First off, the words have a certain meaning(s)… what is uncertain are all the various understandings, for indeed, some may be misapplied or just wrong. But that is a whole other topic. Suffice to say that Peter indeed is a foundation of the church, but not exclusively, unless you go against the plain sense that all the apostles are our foundation, with Christ the cornerstone, the Rock of ages, and we ,along with apostles are also living stones, per scripture and tradition.
Rather than calling out straw man; please explain why you think they’re straw men.
In one case you imply understanding for me is solely on scripture and zero on tradition, which is your misunderstanding that you use against my points, hence straw man…the other where you infer i hold any understanding of scripture suspect is also incorrect.
Again scripture and tradition is normative. I differ from you by saying all normative authorities are subject to God breathed scripture. Even when oral tradition went before any writ, as is often the case, that which was written still held normative authority as applicable to any oral case.
That Tradition was the normative source in concert with the Septuagint Scriptures…
While I agree that reception of Scripture is also by God given grace , I do not call them equally infallible or without error. That is, God speaking or writing by inspiring man is not conditional . Our reception and understanding of said message is conditional.
 
@lanman87,

The 7 books in question were disputed at the time of the Council in 382 and yet this same council accepted them as inspired. So, for a thousand years they were accepted and read in Mass without question.

In the heresies following 382, even the heretics never questioned the deuterocanons.

Your assertion regarding the appointment of bishops as men without a priestly function is problematic.

Saint Paul and the other Apostles appointed men to follow them in their work and to oversee the flocks they left behind them. How could they appoint men to follow them without passing in their own authority and offices?

As for the priestly sacrificial theology question you posed:

In the contemporary pagan society of the 1st century AD, the pagan priests were elder men who performed sacrifices and rites to worship and honor their gods on behalf of the community.

At the same time, the celebration of the Eucharist in the Mass is a sacrifice. In Jewish society, only priests could offer sacrifices on behalf of society.

Apostles and their successors, the bishops and their assistants the priests; offer sacrifice to God in the Eucharist in Mass. As attested in Hebrews 10.
 
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Your argument of written vs oral Tradition becomes problematic. If not everyone agreed what was or was not the acceptable writings, how can that be the sole normative source for faith and morals? It’s a shifting sands as foundation problem.
Everything is shifting sand that is not built on the Truth and Wisdom that is Christ, everything, even tradition.

With man, everything is problematic. With God everythi g is possible.

In the garden, God had oral communication with Adam and Eve, in perfect harmony.

Sin still entered and ruined harmony.

By your argument, Oral harmony is shifting sand, and quite lacking, needing fail proof system.

God is still Perfect. We are not (yet). Being in harmony is still conditional with no fail proof system / institution save a Person, the new Adam.
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@mcq72,

Your shifting sands argument just threw everything out of the window. Scripture and Tradition; unless each of one of us was hearing the Word direct from Jesus or the Father Himself.

With your point on the Garden, even that is thrown out.
 
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I’ll even go one further: Being first by being the last and servant of all means doing as we see Saint Peter doing in Scripture.
Agree…and open to all (to strive to be the least)
 
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@mcq72,

My point is based on your point of oral harmony in the Garden.

My reaction was: If hearing the Word direct from God, in first hand experience isn’t sufficient; then neither is Scripture or Tradition handed down from the Apostles ( Who heard it directly from Christ Himself ) is sufficient.

Following upon that, if direct first hand hearing the Word isn’t reliable and sufficient; then neither is human reason and interpretation based on these first hand sources is reliable or sufficient.

See?
 
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At the same time, the celebration of the Eucharist in the Mass is a sacrifice. In Jewish society, only priests could offer sacrifices on behalf of society
Agree, and remeber why, for the promise at the beginning was that they would be a nation of priests? Something happened (sin) and now only one out the twelve tribes could serve as priests.

Christ came to restore, fulfill many promises, including making His chosen, His elect, called out ones, a royal priesthood, having finished all blood sacrifices.Why would you then need a priest (heirus) when a presbyter could preside over a bloodless sacrifice of praise and thanksgiving ?

Jews and pagans had priests because the had bloody sacrifices. We all agree that has ceased, so why not the heirus priest function? Why else would the NT office be cited as presbyter and not heirus in inspired Greek terms?

Please, I understand in English we abstracted priest from presbyter…but still not rooted in heirus , which is OT priest…the Greek does not say the apostles appointed heirus but prebyteros, and in my opinion, with due reason (no more blood function).
 
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@mcq72,

The short answer I’ll offer for the moment is this:

In the Old Testament, the entire people of God were a priestly people; yet they required the Levitical priesthood to offer sacrifices.
 
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In the heresies following 382, even the heretics never questioned the deuterocanons.
That is historically not true. Jerome questioned the deuterocannons and there was a minority at the council of Trent who opposed the deuterocannon books as being included in the “protocannon”. The two most prominent opponents at Trent were Cardinal Cajetan and Cardinal Seripando, neither of whom were ever considered heretics. Being good Catholics all of those who opposed the deuterocannon books at Trent fell in line with the council decision, but to say there was no opposition between 382 and Trent is factually incorrect.
 
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In the Old Testament, the entire people of God were a priestly people; yet they required the Levitical priesthood to offer sacrifices.
Not sure about that…then nothing has changed with Calvary in that regard…sounds like anochronistic, applying your present view of the three priesthoods to OT.

And if nothing has changed in that regard, this is perhaps why the Mass infused OT sentiment/ liturgy with consecrational prayers that our offering be acceptable, as a petition still, as in " may they be acceptable", as in a hope. This to me is in contrast to earliest church offering an assured thanksgiving and praise for an already approved by His resurreection offering, an offering God gave to and for us. We do not offer it back, but rest in it, remember it, in thanskgiving and praise…why do you think they, and now we call it “eucharist” or " thanksgiving" ? Any prophetic reference of sacrifice here is of praise.

I understand the Mass does give thanksgiving, but in my opinion, has also mixed in the sacrificial offering, up to God, for sin, Jesus, in unbloody manner, beyond remebrance, in hopes of acceptance.
 
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In the Old Testament, the entire people of God were a priestly people; yet they required the Levitical priesthood to offer sacrifices.
One of the main points in Hebrews is the Christ himself is our high priest and we no longer require a priest to offer sacrifices for us over and over again.
 
@ianman87,

You raise a good point; though it doesn’t shoot down the canonicity of the deuterocanons as they were accepted by majority vote in councils.

If I applied your reasoning, that minority opinions invalidate an election; then every US president after George Washington was invalidly elected.
 
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No, @mcq72; I’m maintaining a Scripture basis against your point.

Think of it like this:

Jesus at the Last Supper told His Apostles “ Do this “ as He was offering His Sacrifice. Sacrifice is exclusively a priestly function. Even though Christ wasn’t directly calling them priests; He instructed them to offer a sacrifice. Thus, by implication; He made them priests because of what He told them to do.
 
You raise a good point; though it doesn’t shoot down the canonicity of the deuterocanons as they were accepted by majority vote in councils.
Luther’s opinion was the same as Cajetan and Serpando and the others in opposition at Trent. By this time the reformed movement was separate from Catholicism both politically and theologically and the reformed Christians were free to reject the council of Trent as being wrong.
 
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Michael16:
As for the lack of an Eastern presence in post 1054 councils, have you found any evidence that we or your bishops asked to be included?
I haven’t researched this but I’m assuming that Rome did not invite the East. Have you? I’m guessing if you had, you would present it?
Maybe that’s why the Church began to call councils ecumenical?
Sounds like a good guess.

ZP
Retired Melkite Bishop, John Elya, when active, entertained many Q/A sessions.

3 examples from this retired Eastern Catholic bishop answering very direct questions

Are we Orthodox united with Rome?

AND

When can there be re-union with Constantinople?

AND

How do the Pope’s encyclicals and teachings impact on the Melkites?
 
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@Ianman87,

That’s circular reasoning. Just because Luther, an excommunicated heretic; agreed with a minority opinion doesn’t mean that Luther was right in the rest of his opinions.

The man was grossly wrong in so much of his opinions.
 
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