M
MTD
Guest
Since you haven’t had a chance to respond yet and I’ve been thinking about it some more, I’m posting some more thoughts…
You seem to be saying that it applies not only to the Tridentine, which was the Roman Rite referred to in De Defectibus, but to all rites which are promulgated as the Roman Rite. I disagree since St. Pius V promulgated the Tridentine “in perpetuity” and thereby excluded other future rites from his declaration.
And if that is not a good enough argument, let me propose another. Hypothetically, the Byzantine Rite, which is the normative rite of the Melkite, Greek, Ukrainian, Ruthenian, Romanian, etc. Churches, could also be promulgated as the universal rite of the Latin Church, thereby becoming the normative Roman Rite. Now since the formula of consecration in the Byzantine Rite is valid regardless of what Church the Byzantine Rite functions as the normative rite for, it follows that the formula would still be valid after the rite was promulgated as the Roman Rite since the formula would not have been changed in the process of promulgation. The formula would not be the same as the Tridentine formula outlined in De Defectibus, and yet it would still be valid. This shows that just because a rite is promulgated for universal use in the Latin Church does not mean it must abide by the regulations of De Defectibus. (And just in case you’re thinking of arguing that the Byzantine Rite could never be promulgated as the Roman Rite because the Tridentine was promulgated “in perpetuity,” I remind you that that would also mean the revisions of St. Pius X and Pius XII were invalidly promulgated, but such is admittedly not the case.)
Does this make sense?
Or is this debate a vehicle for proving the heresy and therefore the invalidity of Pope Paul VI? If so, I don’t see how you can use that argument to prove his heresy since the opinion that “This is My Blood/This is My Body” is the essential form of consecration is a valid theological opinion and therefore he cannot be accused of heresy on that point. As an interesting side note, Popes Paul VI, John Paul II, and Benedict XVI were not the only popes to hold that theological opinion; St. Pius X held it. From the Catechism of St. Pius X:
Q. What is the form of the sacrament of the Eucharist?
A. The form of the sacrament of the Eucharist consists of the words used by Jesus Christ Himself: “This is My Body: This is My Blood.”
If that is not your argument, I apologize for implying such. However, it’s difficult for me to know where you’re coming from if you don’t clearly outline your argument. So far I’ve only received questions hinting what you’re trying to prove and explanations of theological opinions. It would greatly help me if you could clearly outline your argument against the validity of the formula of consecration in the NO. How about it?
Maria
I brought up the Eastern rites because I wanted to prove that St. Pius V’s De Defectibus does not refer to all rites. Since it does not refer to all rites, it must be determined which rite(s) it refers to. The answer is the Tridentine Rite, to which that document specifically refers.I don’t follow you here. Didn’t we already know he was referring to the Latin Rite?
You seem to be saying that it applies not only to the Tridentine, which was the Roman Rite referred to in De Defectibus, but to all rites which are promulgated as the Roman Rite. I disagree since St. Pius V promulgated the Tridentine “in perpetuity” and thereby excluded other future rites from his declaration.
And if that is not a good enough argument, let me propose another. Hypothetically, the Byzantine Rite, which is the normative rite of the Melkite, Greek, Ukrainian, Ruthenian, Romanian, etc. Churches, could also be promulgated as the universal rite of the Latin Church, thereby becoming the normative Roman Rite. Now since the formula of consecration in the Byzantine Rite is valid regardless of what Church the Byzantine Rite functions as the normative rite for, it follows that the formula would still be valid after the rite was promulgated as the Roman Rite since the formula would not have been changed in the process of promulgation. The formula would not be the same as the Tridentine formula outlined in De Defectibus, and yet it would still be valid. This shows that just because a rite is promulgated for universal use in the Latin Church does not mean it must abide by the regulations of De Defectibus. (And just in case you’re thinking of arguing that the Byzantine Rite could never be promulgated as the Roman Rite because the Tridentine was promulgated “in perpetuity,” I remind you that that would also mean the revisions of St. Pius X and Pius XII were invalidly promulgated, but such is admittedly not the case.)
Does this make sense?
It really comes down to our respective positions on sedevacantism. Consider my position: I believe the popes since Pius XII were valid. In virtue of negative and indirect infallibility, valid popes cannot promulgate disciplines contrary to the Divine Law. But approving an invalid formula of consecration is against the Divine Law, is it not? So, given my position of belief in the validity of Pope Paul VI, I believe in the validity of the formula of consecration of the Pauline Rite. What other conclusion should I come to?Do you think the Novus Ordo is a new Rite…for the Latin Church?
Or is this debate a vehicle for proving the heresy and therefore the invalidity of Pope Paul VI? If so, I don’t see how you can use that argument to prove his heresy since the opinion that “This is My Blood/This is My Body” is the essential form of consecration is a valid theological opinion and therefore he cannot be accused of heresy on that point. As an interesting side note, Popes Paul VI, John Paul II, and Benedict XVI were not the only popes to hold that theological opinion; St. Pius X held it. From the Catechism of St. Pius X:
Q. What is the form of the sacrament of the Eucharist?
A. The form of the sacrament of the Eucharist consists of the words used by Jesus Christ Himself: “This is My Body: This is My Blood.”
If that is not your argument, I apologize for implying such. However, it’s difficult for me to know where you’re coming from if you don’t clearly outline your argument. So far I’ve only received questions hinting what you’re trying to prove and explanations of theological opinions. It would greatly help me if you could clearly outline your argument against the validity of the formula of consecration in the NO. How about it?
Maria