Traditions of Man - Divorce and Remarriage

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Kirane:
In some cases, it amounts to about more than 95 percent of those who apply for the annulment are granted it.
What does that mean exactly, “in some cases” it amounts to “more than 95 percent”?

It’s either 95 percent, or it’s not. The minute you say “in some cases” it sounds like the statistics need to be investigated.

Please quote your source for the “more than 95 percent”.
 
From the Vatican website:

**Catholic Annulment Statistics Worldwide for the year 2002 (last available data):

“of the 56,236 ordinary hearings for a declaration of
nullity, 46,092 received an affirmative sentence.” **

That’s less than 82%. Still high, but “more than 95 percent” is clearly an exaggeration.

"Of these
343 were handed out in Africa,
676 in Oceania,
1,562 in Asia,
8,855 in Europe and
36,656 in America, of which
30,968 in North America and
5,688 in Central and South America."


It looks clear that if too many annulments are being granted, it’s being done in America.

The problem is not with the Church as a whole.
 
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Kirane:
I respected that with reference to the situation in Catholicism before Vatican II. However, after Vatican II, just about any Catholic can get their marriage broken and obtain the results of a wrecked family by the annulment process of the Roman Catholic Church.
Hi Kirane

I respect what the catholic in their practise. I do not see eye to eye of what other denomination is doing is wrong or not. Simply becoz i’m not in the capacity to say that. My church teaching to me as a protestant is to be kind and loving to others and walk the kind of live that will make god happy. I’m not a strong christian as everyone do, but i just know what will make god happy and what will not make him happy… 😃
 
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Batjacboy:
From the Vatican website:

**Catholic Annulment Statistics Worldwide for the year 2002 (last available data):

“of the 56,236 ordinary hearings for a declaration of
nullity, 46,092 received an affirmative sentence.” **

That’s less than 82%. Still high, but “more than 95 percent” is clearly an exaggeration.

"Of these
343 were handed out in Africa,
676 in Oceania,
1,562 in Asia,
8,855 in Europe and
36,656 in America, of which
30,968 in North America and
5,688 in Central and South America."


It looks clear that if too many annulments are being granted, it’s being done in America.

The problem is not with the Church as a whole.
Those are statistics worldwide for that particular year. The statistics vary from year to year and from place to place. When I said in some cases the approval rate is more than 95% I was referring to the United States of America and the Roman Catholic tribunals in some areas of the United States of America. For example, according to the
US Catholic magazine of April 1997 on page 7, of all those who apply for an annulment in the St. Paul Minneapolis area, 97% are approved, and declared invalid.
That would be a rejection rate of about 3%.So my statement that “In some cases, it amounts to about more than 95 percent of those who apply for the annulment are granted it.” is verifed by the data from the US Catholic journal of the date given.
 
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happygal:
Hi Kirane

I respect what the catholic in their practise. I do not see eye to eye of what other denomination is doing is wrong or not. Simply becoz i’m not in the capacity to say that. My church teaching to me as a protestant is to be kind and loving to others and walk the kind of live that will make god happy. I’m not a strong christian as everyone do, but i just know what will make god happy and what will not make him happy… 😃
This is a good attitude and I wish that more Catholics would have it and try to make their marriages work instead of taking the easy way out as supplied by the annulment theory of the Roman Catholic Church. Why do so many Catholics refuse to take their marriage vows seriously and assert that they did not know what they were doing at the time when they took their marriage vows? It looks like they might be mentally defective or something when they claim “defect of consent”. Doesn’t that mean that they went through all the business of getting everyone together for their marriage ceremony, they went to the Church, they sat through a Mass, and they exchanged their vows and lived as husband and wife for several years, and had a family together, but then after all that, they decided that they were mentally defective at the time of the marriage ceremony and they had defect of consent? And it is at an enormous rate in the USA of about 50 to 60,000 annulments gratned per year, and the majority of them are based on this defect of consent excuse. Is that the kind of excuse that God looks favorably upon after a couple has undergone several years of married life together? Why were they enjoying these marital relations if they knew that they were mentally defective at the time of the exchange of vows?
 
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blackbelt:
When a couple gets married they believe in there hearts this is the one to marry we all want that white picket fence that nice home that perfect marriage, but then comes Kids, Bills, Mortgage, Illness, Problems problems problems but instead of looking to Christ for relief and guidance in there ignorance they look to another partner or want out of the problem so they split , but weather a divorce or annulment the fact remains the Kids suffer and the family unit is no more.
Correct.
You are absolutely right. And is it not the lily-livered way out to say that since we now have all these problems, let’s take the easy annulment path as supplied by the Catholic Church and pretend that there never was any marriage in the first place.
 
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sandusky:
I understand that; my point was aimed at your statement concerning your “consent” in the matter. You did not consent to your partner’s behavior, nor did you consent to the murderer’s actions, nor did you consent to the diseases course.

It is the idea that you have control over such things to which I was pointing.
But this goes to the very heart of the matter. If I freely make a vow to God, I am obligated to fulfill it, if at all possible. I do have control over that. The behavior of others, especially their sinfulness, has no bearing on my responsibility to fulfill my obligation to God.

When I married my husband, I swore to God that I took him for better, for worse, for richer, for poorer, in sickness and in health, forsaking all others, till death do us part. That is the wording of the vow, and I am obligated to God to fulfill it *as it is worded. *So if the marriage gets worse, I am still obligated to fulfill my vow–after all, I swore to God that I would when I made that very vow. There are no astericks or codicils saying I take him unless he cheats on me. I am obligated to stay married to him–even if we live apart–until one of us dies. That is the vow I made.
The definition of any N.T. Greek Lexicon shows the meaning of the word porneia, as evidenced by the OP’s own post in which the OP offers the following quote:

He defines porneia as ”Any kind of sexual immorality.” Adultery fits the definition he gives.

The weakness of his position is hinted at by his statement, “Your interpretation requires that porneia and moichaomai are synonyms.” They are synonyms, by his own statement, “any kind of sexual immorality,” and, more importantly by the lexicon.

The reverse is true: it is his position that requires that they not be synonymous, but they are.
As I already indicated, I will leave the discussion of porneia to others. I will not debate that here as it should have a thread of its own.
 
Kay Cee:
But this goes to the very heart of the matter. If I freely make a vow to God, I am obligated to fulfill it, if at all possible. I do have control over that. The behavior of others, especially their sinfulness, has no bearing on my responsibility to fulfill my obligation to God.

When I married my husband, I swore to God that I took him for better, for worse, for richer, for poorer, in sickness and in health, forsaking all others, till death do us part. That is the wording of the vow, and I am obligated to God to fulfill it as it is worded. So if the marriage gets worse, I am still obligated to fulfill my vow–after all, I swore to God that I would when I made that very vow. There are no astericks or codicils saying I take him unless he cheats on me. I am obligated to stay married to him–even if we live apart–until one of us dies. That is the vow I made.
You are correct, Kay Cee, with the condition, as you state it, “if at all possible.”

If there is an adulterous affair by one of the marriage partners, my first point of counsel is not “you must divorce,” but, “this can be overcome through Christ.” It is difficult, but scripture promises that it can be overcome through the strength and love of Christ.

However, if the offending spouse is not willing to repent and return to the offended spouse, then the vow that was been made by the offended spouse cannot be kept.

How is it possible to keep the vow, and all of its attendant responsibilities, to one who has left? How can your body be his, and his be yours, if he has severed the relationship and lives with another? It cannot be, and that is the difficult position into which the offended, and innocent party is placed, ie., it is impossible to fulfill the responsibilities of the vow.

That is why the concession for divorce is made by Moses, the Lord, and Paul; it is made because of man’s sinfulness (Mt 19:8).

The context for the innocent party is found in Jer 3:8ff where God divorces His wife, Israel.

Israel has committed adulteries (Heb. na’aph; Gk, LXX moichaomai). In the Hebrew, Israel has broken wedlock (further support for porneia as adultery in Christ’s sayings), and though God desires to fulfill His vows to Israel, He is no longer able to do so, because Israel has left Him, and so, He divorces Israel, His unfaithful spouse.

We can conclude then, that divorce is not sinful in every situation, otherwise, God has sinned against Israel, which He certainly has not; rather, because Israel has forsaken her spouse and rejected His love for the love of another, God divorced her.
 
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malachi_a_serva:
No I am referring to the sacrament of Baptism, the sacrament of first communion, the sacrament of confession, the sacrament of confirmation.

Sacrament of Baptism is needed for salvation (aside from loopholes the Catholic church has), receiving the eurchrist is required for salvation, the sacrement of confession is required for salvation.

Why no tribunal to ensure these sacriemnts are valid and were receive valid? Ones eternal soul is at stake. However, there is a tribunal for the sacrament of marriagem, and yet this has nothing to do with one’s salvation, just the appeasment of living people - to make them happy.

It would appear the church’s priorities are misguided.
Sir,

You seem to be very bitter toward the Catholic Church. It seems to me that you are letting your emotions fuel your anger toward the Church. That’s a shame. The Catholic Church is in the business of saving souls (for about 2000 years). I wonder why you can’t see that?
 
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Goldy:
Sir,

You seem to be very bitter toward the Catholic Church. It seems to me that you are letting your emotions fuel your anger toward the Church. That’s a shame. The Catholic Church is in the business of saving souls (for about 2000 years). I wonder why you can’t see that?
Have you picked up an American newspaper within the last few years and read anything about the “scandals”. It is a different story when something like this or when an unjust annulment hits and wrecks your family.
 
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sandusky:
You are correct, Kay Cee, with the condition, as you state it, “if at all possible.”

If there is an adulterous affair by one of the marriage partners, my first point of counsel is not “you must divorce,” but, “this can be overcome through Christ.” It is difficult, but scripture promises that it can be overcome through the strength and love of Christ.

However, if the offending spouse is not willing to repent and return to the offended spouse, then the vow that was been made by the offended spouse cannot be kept.
Of course it can. I can be faithful to my husband even if he is not faithful to me.
How is it possible to keep the vow, and all of its attendant responsibilities, to one who has left? How can your body be his, and his be yours, if he has severed the relationship and lives with another? It cannot be, and that is the difficult position into which the offended, and innocent party is placed, ie., it is impossible to fulfill the responsibilities of the vow.
I took him as my husband, forsaking all others. It’s true he can leave, and I have no control over that. However, I can still forsake all others. He would still be my husband, whether or not we live together. Even apart, he would be my husband for better, for worse, for richer, for poorer, in sickness and in health. I would still forsake all others. I would still be fulfilling the vow.
That is why the concession for divorce is made by Moses, the Lord, and Paul; it is made because of man’s sinfulness (Mt 19:8).

The context for the innocent party is found in Jer 3:8ff where God divorces His wife, Israel.

Israel has committed adulteries (Heb. na’aph; Gk, LXX moichaomai). In the Hebrew, Israel has broken wedlock (further support for porneia as adultery in Christ’s sayings), and though God desires to fulfill His vows to Israel, He is no longer able to do so, because Israel has left Him, and so, He divorces Israel, His unfaithful spouse.

We can conclude then, that divorce is not sinful in every situation, otherwise, God has sinned against Israel, which He certainly has not; rather, because Israel has forsaken her spouse and rejected His love for the love of another, God divorced her.
That is a different situation. That is a situation between two parties. My marriage vows are between three parties, myself, my husband, and God. If my husband violates his vows, he would be sinning against God, and what God does to him about it has no bearing on me. I am still faithful. God is faithful to me, and I am still keeping my vow to him.

I dispute that Jesus and Paul allowed for divorce and remarriage. That, as I have pointed out, is the crux of the matter. You seem to want me to just up and take your interpretation for the word “porneia” instead of having me investigate for myself (you did say that would be a “waste of time”).
 
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malachi_a_serva:
Sorry to hear of your experience. I guess my point being…it is only “invalide” because the church says those “things” make it “not valid”. But in reality, you were ther, your spouse was there…etc…etc…it happened. But I understand the “rational” behind it. It still means you were married before. Althought The Church says your first one was not valid. Everyone that attended, would they say one didn’t happen?

Not trying to argue. Why isn’t there a tribunal to determine if a first communion was valid? A confession? A confirmation? WHy, because the church needed a loophole because people wanted to and were getting remarried. They needed to “invalidate” one so as to not contradicte their beliefs.
Hello Malachi,

Actually while there may not be tribunals, there are times when; the Church must investigate any of the sacraments.

If it comes into question that a certain baptism, eucharist etc. was invalid, the Church performs an investigation to see if in fact the given sacrament was invalid. And if they determine that lets say the incorrect form for changing the bread into the body blood soul and divinity of Christ was used, and even though everyone at church that day took the bread, they did not recieve the body of Christ, ie they did not recieve communion or the Eucharist, it was a null sacrament, it didn’t take place.

The church also does it all the time when a person gets baptized who was ‘baptized’ in one of the denominations, there are some denominations whose baptisms are valid because the form is valid etc. however there are some denominations whose baptism in not valid due to the form etc. and if the person is coming to the Church from one of these denomination the Church determines that the individual was never baptized and they will proceed to baptize the individual.

So your premise is wrong, the church does not look for a loop hole, there is no loophole, just because someone saw a cerimony take place doesn’t mean the marriage took place, just because someone went up to recieve communion doesn’t mean they actually recieved communion, just because someone was told they were baptized doesn’t mean they are baptized etc. etc.

I look forward to your comment.

Thanks,
Rochus
 
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malachi_a_serva:
Sorry to hear of your experience. I guess my point being…it is only “invalide” because the church says those “things” make it “not valid”. But in reality, you were ther, your spouse was there…etc…etc…it happened. But I understand the “rational” behind it. It still means you were married before. Althought The Church says your first one was not valid. Everyone that attended, would they say one didn’t happen?

Not trying to argue. Why isn’t there a tribunal to determine if a first communion was valid? A confession? A confirmation? WHy, because the church needed a loophole because people wanted to and were getting remarried. They needed to “invalidate” one so as to not contradicte their beliefs.
Hello Malachi,

Actually while there may not be tribunals, there are times when; the Church must investigate any of the sacraments.

If it comes into question that a certain baptism, eucharist etc. was invalid, the Church performs an investigation to see if in fact the given sacrament was invalid. And if they determine that lets say the incorrect form for changing the bread into the body blood soul and divinity of Christ was used, and even though everyone at church that day took the bread, they did not recieve the body of Christ, ie they did not recieve communion or the Eucharist, it was a null sacrament, it didn’t take place.

The church also does it all the time when a person gets baptized who was ‘baptized’ in one of the denominations, there are some denominations whose baptisms are valid because the form is valid etc. however there are some denominations whose baptism in not valid due to the form etc. and if the person is coming to the Church from one of these denomination the Church determines that the individual was never baptized and they will proceed to baptize the individual.

So your premise is wrong, the church does not look for a loop hole, there is no loophole, just because someone saw a cerimony take place doesn’t mean the marriage took place, just because someone went up to recieve communion doesn’t mean they actually recieved communion, just because someone was told they were baptized doesn’t mean they are baptized etc. etc.

I look forward to your comment.

Thanks,
Rochus
 
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rschermer2:
So your premise is wrong, the church does not look for a loop hole, there is no loophole, just because someone saw a cerimony take place doesn’t mean the marriage took place, …
Well, whatever you want to call it, divorce or annulment or loopholes, it amounts to the same thing in the real world. First there is a couple professing their love for each other. Then they go through the trouble and spend time setting up a date for the wedding, then various people are invitede to the ceremony which can take place at Mass in a Catholic Church, then they obtain a license which will make the marriage official and legal in the eyes of the state, then the vows are exchanged and the priest announces that they are husband and wife, then they have a big party and celebration and receive congratulations from their friends, then they live together as husband and wife for a time and perhaps raise a family and have children. Up to now there has been no question of any defect or any reason as to why they should not be married, however, sometime later problems arise in the marriage, such as infidelity or incompatibility or problems with the children and the couple decides that they want to get a divorce and marry someone else, but at the same time they want to be able to receive the Sacraments of the Catholic Church. So they go to a Church lawyer who figures out a loophole according to which they can claim that at the time of the wedding ceremony there was a defect of consent - that is a mental state in which they did not give proper consent to the wedding ceremony ten years ago. Now this would have never come up except for the fact that problems had arisen in the marriage. So they are told to obtain a civil divorce and after that they apply for the annulment and get it and they are free to remarry. So in either case of a divorce or an annulment, the family unit has been broken and the couple are free to remarry. There is really no difference at all in the real situation as the children suffer the same problems associated with family breakups in either case.
 
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Kirane:
There is really no difference at all in the real situation as the children suffer the same problems associated with family breakups in either case.
If you look at something like the Pauline Privilege in which two non-baptised people marry and later one is baptised into the faith that is grounds for a marriage to be declared null. No where does St. Paul say, “unless children have been born and might suffer”. If this is your only argument against annulment, it fails.
 
Kay Cee:
Of course it can. I can be faithful to my husband even if he is not faithful to me.

I took him as my husband, forsaking all others. It’s true he can leave, and I have no control over that. However, I can still forsake all others. He would still be my husband, whether or not we live together. Even apart, he would be my husband for better, for worse, for richer, for poorer, in sickness and in health. I would still forsake all others. I would still be fulfilling the vow.
Kay Cee, as presented in scripture, the marriage bond is primarily a physical bond. Of course, the husband has the responsibility to teach his wife in spiritual matters, but the primary focus of marriage is the physical bond. That man (and woman) not be physically alone, that they leave and cleave, that the man is the head, that they honor and love, that they not deny each other physically—it is a physical bond in a physical world.

That is why, without question, death quits the marriage vow, ie., one partner is no longer physically present.

Your thoughts of keeping your vow, even when you are divorced, and forsaken for another in marriage are sweet, but they are also, IMHO, misguided, and in error. Being that the marriage bond is a physical bond, there must be physicality in order to honor the vow. If you chose not to remarry after your husband divorced you, that is not the same thing as keeping your marriage vow. In order for you to keep the marriage vow, you must have a marriage partner physically present.
Kay Cee:
I dispute that Jesus and Paul allowed for divorce and remarriage. That, as I have pointed out, is the crux of the matter.
Study the passages; they speak for themselves.
Kay Cee:
You seem to want me to just up and take your interpretation for the word “porneia” instead of having me investigate for myself (you did say that would be a “waste of time”).
I do not want you take my word for it; investigate it. What is a waste of time is debating the meaning on this forum. Lookup the word in a N.T. Greek Lexicon; there is nothing to debate.
 
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Eden:
If you look at something like the Pauline Privilege in which two non-baptised people marry and later one is baptised into the faith that is grounds for a marriage to be declared null. No where does St. Paul say, “unless children have been born and might suffer”. If this is your only argument against annulment, it fails.
This points out the difference between us. I am concerned about the children suffering from a marital breakup and from a wrecked family life, however, you don;t seem to care and don’t think it is relevant to what God expects from married people.
see:
unitedfamilies.org/divorce.asp
"Although adults may enjoy a sense of freedom in the pursuit of a new and satisfying intimate life, divorce results in children’s lives becoming increasingly subject to rearrangement, instability and emotional upheaval. The devastation children feel on the heels of their parents’ divorce is similar to the way they feel when a parent suddenly dies, for both experiences disrupt close family relationships.

Divorce changes the very nature of childhood. Divorce can sever the crucial bond between a child and one or both of his or her parents. And tragically, divorce has brought about a mass exodus of fathers away from close association with their children. After divorce, parental time and money invested in their children is greatly diminished. Children receive less time and attention from parents because it is now being directed towards establishing new patterns of living which may include a new spouse and/or step-family. Spending time between multiple, unstable households, children are forced to deal with a new set of problems.

Divorce disrupts a child’s relationship with a parent and often creates unresolved feelings of loss and grief that are not shared by the other parent. Divorce is a different experience for children and adults because the children lose something that is fundamental to their development — the family structure. The family comprises the scaffolding upon which children mount successive developmental stages, from infancy to adolescence. It supports their psychological, physical, and emotional ascent into maturity. When that structure collapses, the child is left impoverished, both economically and emotionally."
"All family structures do not produce equivalent outcomes for children. Research evidence on family and children, accumulating for two decades, points to one overwhelming conclusion: Children are most likely to be healthy, happy, well-behaved and responsible; most likely to succeed in school and in life; and least likely to be promiscuous, delinquent, or substance abusers if they live with their two natural parents who are lawfully married. Any variation from this model— cohabitation, legal separation, divorce, single-parents or even remarriage — will predictably lead to more negative results for children.

The divorced family is a different kind of family in which children feel less protected and less certain about their future than children in intact families. Mothers and fathers who share their homes with different people are not the same as mothers and fathers living under the same roof. The divorced family has an entirely new cast of characters and new relationships featuring step-parents, step-siblings, second marriages and second divorces, and often a series of short-term, live-in lovers. The child who grows up in a post-divorce family often experiences not one loss — that of the intact family — but a series of losses as people come and go. This new kind of family puts very different demands on each parent, each child, and each of the new adults who enter the family home.

Evidence suggests that families structured around a married couple and their biological or adopted children is more successful at forging strong parent-child bonds and promoting high levels of affectionate child nurture."
 
This points out the difference between us. I am concerned about the children suffering from a marital breakup and from a wrecked family life, however, you don;t seem to care and don’t think it is relevant to what God expects from married people.
My parents had a civil divorce when I was an infant and my mother had the marriage declared as null when I was six years old. It took that long. I feel blessed that my mother never remarried and devoted herself fully to raising her children. I can assure you in her case, the marriage on my father’s part was null from the beginning. Apparently, the paperwork for the annulment process is to remain private but as a teenager I found copies of my mom’s papers she had given to the tribunal when I was looking for a birth certificate in her closet. I don’t know why other marriages are declared null in the Church but I can vouch for this one.

Now are you going to respond to the Pauline Privilege which does not make any exceptions in the case of children being involved?
If you look at something like the Pauline Privilege in which two non-baptised people marry and later one is baptised into the faith that is grounds for a marriage to be declared null. No where does St. Paul say, “unless children have been born and might suffer”. If this is your only argument against annulment, it fails.
 
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sandusky:
Study the passages; they speak for themselves.
I posted awhile back but I have been just quietly reading for awhile. I finally decided to speak up again. This quote references the common mistake among Protestants in Scriptural interpretation. I referenced this waaaay back in the thread.

I used to think that Jesus was speaking on the criteria for divorce too. That is, until it was pointed out to me that Jesus never contradicts Himself. The two passages in which Jesus speaks about divorce are for a very different reason than Protestants have been taught to believe.

If you read these passages that Protestants claim, “speak for themselves” you will note that Jesus lists different criteria for divorce based on which area he is talking about. If he were counseling the people on when divorce is acceptable, He would say the same thing in both areas, but he doesn’t. In one area he talks of infidelity of either spouse and in another of just one. He also talks about who is allowed to seek divorce based on the areas he is referencing.

Jesus was uneducated. When He is asked about divorce the leaders aren’t seeking his opinion or counsel. They are trying to trip Him up. The people who are actually questioning Him are not His followers. He is showing His divine nature by knowing things He was never taught. Basically He is presented with a “pop quiz” on local law and history. He passes with flying colors and then uses the moment to say, “but in the beginning divorce did not exist.” (paraphrased)

Protestants, please study these passages more carefully. Research the history of the two towns He speaks to. You will discover you have been led down a path of error in teaching. Marcellino D’Ambrosio at www.crossroadsinitiative.com has some great stuff on this. I got to hear a great talk he gave that was all about this specific topic.
 
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Eden:
Now are you going to respond to the Pauline Privilege which does not make any exceptions in the case of children being involved?
Yes I am. This is the question: how many cases of the Pauline privilege have been granted in the years since Vatican II and how does it compare with the number of people involved in getting annulments in the RCC, which is way over two million annulled people in the USA alone since Vatican II? I submit to you that if you compare the number of people involved in divorces granted by the RCC via the Pauline privilege, with the number of people involved in RC annulments in the USA, you will be comparing something like the rippling of water in a teacup with the rippling of waves of water in the Hurricane Katrina and the damages caused will be analogous.
I continue to read that children from broken families, generally, have it more difficult than those from loving caring homes.
unitedfamilies.org/divorce.asp
As you point out there are exceptions, which I admit.
But I have not budged from my contention that there is really no difference in the real world between an annulment and a divorce. They are just different names which refer to legalising or institutionalising a marital breakup.
 
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