Was Christ's resurrection foretold in the Old Testament?

  • Thread starter Thread starter BeeSweet
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
B

BeeSweet

Guest
When reciting the creed statement, “On the third day he rose again from the dead in fulfillment of the Scriptures…”, I’ve always assumed the Scriptures to which we refer are from the Old Testament. Breezing through the Catechism just now though, the Scripture references I see are all from the New Testament.

Was Christ’s resurrection foretold in any of the books of the Old Testament?
 
In the story of Jonah, and possibly Joseph. Also, I think, the sacrifice of Isaac.
 
When reciting the creed statement, “On the third day he rose again from the dead in fulfillment of the Scriptures…”, I’ve always assumed the Scriptures to which we refer are from the Old Testament. Breezing through the Catechism just now though, the Scripture references I see are all from the New Testament.

Was Christ’s resurrection foretold in any of the books of the Old Testament?
only if you have your Messiah decoder ring handy. There’s nothing on the face of any of the stories that foretell the resurrection of Jesus. It is not as if one, not knowing anything about resurrection or Jesus, you can read the story of Jonah or the binding of Isaac and say “Hey, I think they’re talking about the resurrection of God here”
 
I don’t think so until you got to the ending.

Do you remember watching “Sixth Sense”. You were receiving the clues the whole time and didn’t realize it until the end.

This is why St. Augustine said, “The New Testament is hidden in the Old, and the Old Testament is revealed in the New” (paraphrasing).
 
only if you have your Messiah decoder ring handy. There’s nothing on the face of any of the stories that foretell the resurrection of Jesus. It is not as if one, not knowing anything about resurrection or Jesus, you can read the story of Jonah or the binding of Isaac and say “Hey, I think they’re talking about the resurrection of God here”
So the Jewish Messianic prophecy does not necessarily include the resurrection of the Messiah? Do the Jews consider the prophecy of Isaiah to be Messianic prophecy? What exactly is Messianic prophecy as far as the Jews are concerned?

From what I’ve been able to find so far, Isaiah 53: 8-12 is the closest reference in the Old Testament to the resurrection of the Christ. Hosea 6:2 also refers to a raising up on the third day, but I’m not familiar with the rest of the book of Hosea to know what they’re talking about in particular there.

Matthew 12:40 Jesus refers to the story of Jonah as foretelling His own death and resurrection.
 
So the Jewish Messianic prophecy does not necessarily include the resurrection of the Messiah? Do the Jews consider the prophecy of Isaiah to be Messianic prophecy? What exactly is Messianic prophecy as far as the Jews are concerned?
Ressurection is not a conditon of the Messiah, according to Judaism. Most of the prophecy regrading the Messiah can be found in Eziekel.

He’ll be a political leader (Jerimiah 23:5). Descended from King David (same reference). He’ll observe all the commandments. (Isaiah Chapter 11). He’ll win battles for Israrel (Jerimiah, Chapter 33). He won’t be God.
From what I’ve been able to find so far, Isaiah 53: 8-12 is the closest reference in the Old Testament to the resurrection of the Christ. Hosea 6:2 also refers to a raising up on the third day, but I’m not familiar with the rest of the book of Hosea to know what they’re talking about in particular there.
We view Isaiah 53 as talking about Israel. You can probably find some Jewish commentator saying something about it being a messianic prophecy, but that is way outside mainstream, traditional Jewish beliefs. And even then, we would not view Jesus as being the person described.

Is Isaiah 53 used by any of the Gospels to refer to Jesus? If not, why?
 
We view Isaiah 53 as talking about Israel. You can probably find some Jewish commentator saying something about it being a messianic prophecy, but that is way outside mainstream, traditional Jewish beliefs. And even then, we would not view Jesus as being the person described.

Is Isaiah 53 used by any of the Gospels to refer to Jesus? If not, why?
During the time of Jesus, 3 of the 4 Suffering Servant Songs of Isaiah were thought to be Messianic. I’m going to have to do some research to find out more about this.
 
Ressurection is not a conditon of the Messiah, according to Judaism. Most of the prophecy regrading the Messiah can be found in Eziekel.
Where? I’m lazy, help me. 😉
He’ll be a political leader (Jerimiah 23:5). Descended from King David (same reference). He’ll observe all the commandments. (Isaiah Chapter 11). He’ll win battles for Israrel (Jerimiah, Chapter 33).
This is a side track to the point of my thread, but I can’t contain myself from answering these prophecies. 😃 Jesus’s crucifixion was justified politically for his being King of the Jews. His crime was enumerated on the cross as “Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews.” Joseph was of the house and family of David, Mary was his wife and so also of that house and family. Christ was sinless, therefore obedient to all the commandements. Christ conquered sin and death, battled against the evil one and won for Israel forgiveness of sin and eternal life.
He won’t be God.
Why?
Is Isaiah 53 used by any of the Gospels to refer to Jesus? If not, why?
John 12:38, Luke 22:37, Matthew 8:17; 26:63, Mark 9:11-12
 
St Paul (Acts 13:34-35) cites this passage from Psalms as foretelling Christ’s resurrection:

Ps 15:10 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; nor wilt thou give thy holy one to see corruption. (Douay)
Ps 16:10 For thou dost not give me up to Sheol, or let thy godly one see the Pit. (RSV)

Nita
 
St Paul (Acts 13:34-35) cites this passage from Psalms as foretelling Christ’s resurrection:

Ps 15:10 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; nor wilt thou give thy holy one to see corruption. (Douay)
Ps 16:10 For thou dost not give me up to Sheol, or let thy godly one see the Pit. (RSV)

Nita
OK, but is there any way to tell from these Psalms that the Messiah was going to be Resurrected? Or do you see the link only after you know that Jesus had risen from the dead?
 
Is Isaiah 53 used by any of the Gospels to refer to Jesus? If not, why?
In my Catechism (Hardbound, 1994 version) Isaiah 53 is referenced 18 times in various parts of the Catechism. There’s an index at the back showing which bible verses are used in what Catechism paragraphs (a very handy feature, actually).

The on line catechism doesn’t have this index.

The first instance is Isaiah 53:4-5 which refers to paragraph 1505 and “On the cross, Christ took upon himself the whole weight of evil and took away the sin of the world.”

I didn’t check the other references, but if you have a Catechism 😃 you could check them yourself at your convenience.
 
Right offhand, all I can think of in the Old Testament are the Psalms and Jonah references already cited.

I suppose it is possible that Paul’s “according to the Scriptures” of 1 Cor. 15:4 was refering to Gospel writings which had already come to be regarded as canonical. There is another example of one of the Apostles quoting something from one of the Gospels as Scripture, but I can’t think of where it is right now.
 
Right offhand, all I can think of in the Old Testament are the Psalms and Jonah references already cited.

I suppose it is possible that Paul’s “according to the Scriptures” of 1 Cor. 15:4 was refering to Gospel writings which had already come to be regarded as canonical. There is another example of one of the Apostles quoting something from one of the Gospels as Scripture, but I can’t think of where it is right now.
I think Corinthians pre-dated all the Gospels. I know it pre-dated some of them. And they were nowhere near being considered canonical.
 
OK, but is there any way to tell from these Psalms that the Messiah was going to be Resurrected? Or do you see the link only after you know that Jesus had risen from the dead?
I think there were probably many OT passages that were recognized as referring to the Messiah (Jesus) only after His resurrection. Recall the disciples on the road to Emmaus:

*Luke 24:27 And beginning with Moses and all the prophets, He interpreted to them in all the scriptures the things concerning Himself. *

“all the scriptures” was of course, the Old Testament.

Nita
 
Nita, but I think the OP’s original question was: (paraphrasing)

Did any OT Scriptures attest that the Messiah would suffer, die, and then be resurrected. I haven’t seen anything like that.

The messianic prophecies that I saw described the Messiah in two different ways:
  1. Suffering for us (i.e. Isaiah’s Suffering Servant).
  2. A triumphant King (i.e. the Lion of Judah).
Little did anybody seem to realize (in the OT times) that both of these types of prophecies were related to Jesus who had to first suffer and die before He rose again in Triumph.
 
When reciting the creed statement, “On the third day he rose again from the dead in fulfillment of the Scriptures…”, I’ve always assumed the Scriptures to which we refer are from the Old Testament. Breezing through the Catechism just now though, the Scripture references I see are all from the New Testament.
Was Christ’s resurrection foretold in any of the books of the Old Testament?
Hi
I respect your faith, but in my opinion, Jesus never got literally or physically resurrected, though spiritually his status was elevated after the event of Crucifixion. All prophecies of Jesus received from God were fullfilled that he would escape a cursed death on Cross against all odds, so , as a perfect man and ProphetMessenger his status was elevated.This is what I believe others could believe differently, no hatred or compulsion.
Thanks
Bridging gaps between faiths/denomination/religions
 
From what I’ve been able to find so far, Isaiah 53: 8-12 is the closest reference in the Old Testament to the resurrection of the Christ. .
Hi
Sorry, I don’t agree with you. When in reality the literal or physical resurrection of Jesus never happened, so I would say that Issaiah is misunderstood.It is a misconception.
Thanks
Bridging gaps between faiths/denominations/religions
 
I found this in the Catechism of the Catholic Church.
** “He died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures”**
601 The Scriptures had foretold this divine plan of salvation through the putting to death of “the righteous one, my Servant” as a mystery of universal redemption, that is, as the ransom that would free men from the slavery of sin.397 Citing a confession of faith that he himself had “received”, St. Paul professes that "Christ died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures."398 In particular Jesus’ redemptive death fulfills Isaiah’s prophecy of the suffering Servant.399 Indeed Jesus himself explained the meaning of his life and death in the light of God’s suffering Servant.400 After his Resurrection he gave this interpretation of the Scriptures to the disciples at Emmaus, and then to the apostles.401
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top