M
minkymurph
Guest
I wasn’t referring specifically to the US Constitution but I don’t understand what you are saying. Are you arguing the US Constitution makes no provision for separation of Church and State or that it does?https://oneway2day.files.wordpress.com/2014/03/1st-amendment_thumb.jpg?w=646&h=333
Where is that explicit provision of separation for Church and State in the US Constitution?
The more important question to me is how does the judicial and democratic system draw a line and define what is moral and what is not? How, without a reference point can it justify granting one group a right, while totally violating another group if some type of morality is not used as the standard?
I’ve already asked this question, and I challenge anyone to with sound reason or however way you want to go about it to give me a good explanation why a homosexual couple can marry and a polygamist cannot. The marriage between the polygamist involves more than one spouse. So what? If we remove Christian morality from legal argument, then the polygamists rights must honored. Incidentally , has any homosexual been jailed for marrying like polygamist have?
On the point of polygamy, the only explanation I could give you as to why a polygamist cannot have more than one wife is in the case of the UK it would cost a fortune in welfare.
You do have a point though.