This is what we believe:
First of all, Mary had a family. Jewish custom would have sent her under the roof of one of her relatives, and not to one of the disciples. Handing her to John was highly irregular and contrary to the expectations of the time and the culture. Jesus addressed her as woman and not *mother. *(He did the same thing at the wedding at Cana) In both instances, in fact every single time Jesus addresses Mary in Scriptures with a formal address. Why is that? Was it to show that he had no human attachment or tenderness for her? On the contrary, Jesus must have been the most tender and most considerate of sons. But I do not think that family stuff would have been written down and preserved for Sacred Scriptures. Everything in there has a purpose, and the purpose is beyond the familiar or to simply recall human attachments. Every time Jesus speaks to his mother on the pages of the Bible, there is a message for all people for all time. It is never for the sake to tell an anecdote. As big as it is, the one thing you cannot accuse the Bible of is verbal superfluous-ness. No ahisaman, the text says Jesus give his mother to mankind and mankind to his mother. John was the beloved disciple, but that only tells me how Jesus regards all of mankind, with the exact same tenderness he had for the one disciple, who must have loved him the most.