Why the hostility toward Mary?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sharen
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
You’re wrong, rinnie - or just confused.
Mary was conceived without Original Sin - making her sinless (CCC - 490-494).

**Your saying that she was saved at the moment **of her conception is redundant.

This is why it is called the dogma of the Immaculate Conception . . .
Sorry there E you better read it again. Let read this.

CCC 491. Through the centuries the Church as become ever more aware the Mary Full of Grace THROUGH GOD was REDEEMED from the MOMENT of her conception.

Now how could she be conceived without OS if she was REDEEMED. That mean that she was indeed free from sin, but at her conception never contracted the Original Sin from her parents by a singular Grace and privilege of God by the virture of the merits of Jesus Christ. She was PRESERVED IMMUNE for all STAIN of original sin.

Now think what I am telling you, the only way she would have been CONCEIVED without sin would mean she had parents who were saved from OS. So why would she have been redeemed at the moment of her conception? From What?

But because her parents were from Adam they had original sin, But before she could be exposed to it God took it away so the stain of OS never hit her. God got in between from the second of her coming into being. She was a whole different kind of being.

493 The Fathers of the eastern tradition call the Mother of God the ALL-HOLY and celebrate her as free from ay stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a NEW CREATURE. It was by the grace of God Mary remained free from EVERY personal sin in her whole life long.
 
The word “Trinty” is nowhere in the Bible.

Of course you have 1 John 5: 7, 8. which states - 5:7 *“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. *5:8 *And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.” *

Of course, then you have the whole Comma Johanneum problem…

Ok, so please tell me where in the Bible where it mentions that we pray to Mary and that she was sinless.
This is a typical ploy of non-Trinitarians (who are heretical, by the way, since they deny the nature of God and Deity of Christ). Of course the “word” Trinity is not in the Bible because it did not exist when the Bible was being written. It was a term coined at a later date to define the information found in the Scriptures, and explained by the early church fathers and Councils regarding the Triune nature of the Godhead.
 
This is a typical ploy of non-Trinitarians (who are heretical, by the way, since they deny the nature of God and Deity of Christ). Of course the “word” Trinity is not in the Bible because it did not exist when the Bible was being written. It was a term coined at a later date to define the information found in the Scriptures, and explained by the early church fathers and Councils regarding the Triune nature of the Godhead.
What are you so mad about? 🤷 I was just answering his question. I know all the history.
 
**Protestants like to ask this question because it is not **explicitly in the Bible.
.
Had to take out some of your response so I could post.

Yes, I understand what you are saying. Still, it doesn’t support the statement that we can prayer to Mary or Saints.

Lets look at one of the major verses that is use to support praying to anyone else but God, Rev. 5:8-14.

*"And when He had taken the book, the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders fell down before the Lamb, having each one a harp, and golden bowls full of incense, which are the prayers of the saints. And they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy art Thou to take the book, and to break its seals; for Thou wast slain, and didst purchase for God with Thy blood men from every tribe and tongue and people and nation. “And Thou hast made them to be a kingdom and priests to our God; and they will reign upon the earth.” And I looked, and I heard the voice of many angels around the throne and the living creatures and the elders; and the number of them was myriads of myriads, and thousands of thousands, saying with a loud voice, “Worthy is the Lamb that was slain to receive power and riches and wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing.” And every created thing which is in heaven and on the earth and under the earth and on the sea, and all things in them, I heard saying, “To Him who sits on the throne, and to the Lamb, be blessing and honor and glory and dominion forever and ever.” And the four living creatures kept saying, “Amen.” And the elders fell down and worshiped,” *

Unlike some other Christians, I have no problem with belieiving those in heaven hear what is said on earth. Does this justify praying to those who are in heaven? No.

Regarding verse 8, can the prayers be authored by those who are already in heaven? It doesn’t say. There are different interpretations on exactly who the saints are because their identity can’t be demonstrated Revelation is a highly symbolic book. Therefore, if it cannot be demonstrated conclusively who they are, then it cannot be demonstrated conclusively whose prayers they are either. Verse 9 says “they sang a new song.” Who is the “they”? It would have to be either the the four living creatures and/or the 24 elders since “prayers of the saints” don’t sing, “creatures” and “elders” do the singing.
In verse 11-12 the angels, the creatures, and the elders who were all around the throne (which means they are in heaven) were praising God directly. In verse 13 it says every created thing in heaven and earth was praising God, then the elders fell down and worshiped, verse 14.

Just because those in heaven can hear the prayers of those on Earth does not mean that is okay to pray to saints. If they can hear the prayers of people it is because God grants that to them. Can those in heaven hear the prayers uttered without speech? Can they read minds? It is only God who knows all things and only God can grant anyone to hear or know what the prayers are of those who pray in silence. The saints don’t have omniscience. Nevertheless, all the verse is saying is that they can hear the praise and worship of God. It does not say that they are to receive prayers, nor does it imply praying to them is permitted. All it says is that they can hear the prayers and praise. There is nothing suggesting that those on Earth are requesting the prayers or intercession of those in heaven.

Even if the case can be made that prayers are authored in heaven, and that those prayers are mingled with the prayers of those from Earth, it still does not justify those on Earth praying to those in heaven. At best, all that we can say is that the prayers of those in heaven and the prayers of those on Earth are mingled. To say any more than that is to read into the Scripture what is not there.

Can the saints in heaven hear every prayer of every creature all the time? The Catholic Church says that it’s possible. Otherwise, it would not be possible to pray to Mary legitimately. The Catholic Church says that we do not know what the state is of those in heaven and that we should not therefore conclude that they cannot hear all of our prayers. But that doesn’t make sense. In other words, the Church doesn’t know what it is like so they conclude it’s possible. It is an argument based on what we do not know, not what we do know. This is a very, very weak way of trying to present a position. Ultimately, it is an admission by the Catholic Church that the Scriptures do not teach in any direct way their dogma of praying to the saints.

There is no biblical teaching at all that states we are to pray to those who once were alive on earth and are now in heaven. Revelation says:
"*And I fell at his feet to worship him. And he said to me, “Do not do that; I am a fellow servant of yours and your brethren who hold the testimony of Jesus; worship God. For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy,” *(Rev. 19:10).

John wants to bow the knee and worship the angel. But the angel tells him not to do that because he is a fellow creature. If the angel says that he is a fellow creature like John, and that John is not to bow to him, then neither should anyone else bow to an angel, or any creature so as to offer worship. Worship includes prayer. Therefore, no one should pray to any created thing.
 
The word “Trinty” is nowhere in the Bible.

Of course you have 1 John 5: 7, 8. which states - 5:7 *“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. *5:8 *And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.” *

Of course, then you have the whole Comma Johanneum problem…

Ok, so please tell me where in the Bible where it mentions that we pray to Mary and that she was sinless.
The bible does no say we pray to Mary it tells us that Mary can interceed for us in prayer. From the very beginning actually.
Luke 1:44 Mary’s VOICE causes John the Baptist to leap for joy in Elizabeth womb. Luke is teaching us Mary is our powerful intercessor.

Luke ;46 Mary claims her soul magnifies the Lord. Strong testimony to her uniqueness, Mary our Mother and intercessor also magnifies OUR prayers.

Luke 1:49 Mary prophesies that all generations shall call her blessed, as Catholics do in the Hail Mary prayer. What protestant churches have existed in all generations (easy answer here, NONE) and how many call Mary blessed with special prayers and devotions?

In the O,T the Davidic Kingdom the kind does not refuse his mother, Jesus is the King of the New Davidic King, and he does not refuse the requests of his Mother. Mary the Queen.

In the O.T Davidic Kingdom the Queen intercedes on behalf of the Kings followers. She is the QUEEN MOTHER.
 
The Angel says Hail Full of Grace. that is proof that she is sinless, Think about it where there is sin you will not find God. Hail full of grace THE LORD IS WITH YOU.
I don’t think so…
That is not proof that she was sinless. Stephen was full of grace:
“Stephen, full of grace and power, was performing great wonders and signs among the people.” Acts 6:8

As for the Lord being with her… she is not alone in that either. Here are a couple of examples (I left some out to make this answer shorter):

"I am with you"

Genesis 26:24
and the LORD appeared to him that night and said, “I am the God of your father Abraham. Do not be afraid, for I am with you. I will bless you and multiply your offspring because of My servant Abraham.”

Isaiah 41:10
Do not fear, for I am with you; do not be afraid, for I am your God. I will strengthen you; I will help you; I will hold on to you with My righteous right hand.

Jeremiah 42:11
Don’t be afraid of the king of Babylon whom you now fear; don’t be afraid of him’—[this is] the LORD’s declaration—'because I am with you to save you and deliver you from him.

Haggai 1:13
Haggai, the LORD’s messenger, delivered the LORD’s message to the people, “I am with you” —the LORD’s declaration.

Matthew 28:20
teaching them to observe everything I have commanded you. And remember, I am with you always, to the end of the age."

Acts 18:10
For I am with you, and no one will lay a hand on you to hurt you, because I have many people in this city."

"The Lord is with you"

Judges 6:12
Then the Angel of the LORD appeared to him and said: “The LORD is with you, mighty warrior.”

2 Samuel 7:3
So Nathan told the king, “Go and do all that is on your heart, for the LORD is with you.”

2 Chronicles 15:2
So he went out to meet Asa and said to him, "Asa and all Judah and Benjamin, hear me. The LORD is with you when you are with Him. If you seek Him, He will be found by you, but if you abandon Him, He will abandon you.

2 Chronicles 20:17
You do not have to fight this [battle]. Position yourselves, stand still, and see the salvation of the LORD. [He is] with you, Judah and Jerusalem. Do not be afraid or discouraged. Tomorrow, go out to face them, for the LORD is with you. ’ "

Luke 1:28
And [the angel] came to her and said, “Rejoice, favored woman! The Lord is with you.

Sorry I answered so late… It took me a little while to actually compile all of this…
 
Sorry there E you better read it again. Let read this.

CCC 491. Through the centuries the Church as become ever more aware the Mary Full of Grace THROUGH GOD was REDEEMED from the MOMENT of her conception.

Now how could she be conceived without OS if she was REDEEMED. That mean that she was indeed free from sin, but at her conception never contracted the Original Sin from her parents by a singular Grace and privilege of God by the virture of the merits of Jesus Christ. She was PRESERVED IMMUNE for all STAIN of original sin.

Now think what I am telling you, the only way she would have been CONCEIVED without sin would mean she had parents who were saved from OS. So why would she have been redeemed at the moment of her conception? From What?

But because her parents were from Adam they had original sin, But before she could be exposed to it God took it away so the stain of OS never hit her. God got in between from the second of her coming into being. She was a whole different kind of being.

493 The Fathers of the eastern tradition call the Mother of God the ALL-HOLY and celebrate her as free from ay stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a NEW CREATURE. It was by the grace of God Mary remained free from EVERY personal sin in her whole life long.
rinnie -
Again - you are stating Catholic belief - ALMOST.

The Catholic Church does not define conceptions as merely the sperm joining the egg. TRUE conception, according to the Church, is when soul is created and infused into the body. Mary’s was an Immaculate Conception. If it were not - the Church - the pillar and fondation of Truth - would not refer to it as such.

The Church does not teach nor have I implied that this was accomplished by Mary - but by GOD alone.
 
I don’t think so…
That is not proof that she was sinless. Stephen was full of grace:
“Stephen, full of grace and power, was performing great wonders and signs among the people.” Acts 6:8

As for the Lord being with her… she is not alone in that either. Here are a couple of examples (I left some out to make this answer shorter):

"I am with you"

Genesis 26:24
and the LORD appeared to him that night and said, “I am the God of your father Abraham. Do not be afraid, for I am with you. I will bless you and multiply your offspring because of My servant Abraham.”

Isaiah 41:10
Do not fear, for I am with you; do not be afraid, for I am your God. I will strengthen you; I will help you; I will hold on to you with My righteous right hand.

Jeremiah 42:11
Don’t be afraid of the king of Babylon whom you now fear; don’t be afraid of him’—[this is] the LORD’s declaration—'because I am with you to save you and deliver you from him.

Haggai 1:13
Haggai, the LORD’s messenger, delivered the LORD’s message to the people, “I am with you” —the LORD’s declaration.

Matthew 28:20
teaching them to observe everything I have commanded you. And remember, I am with you always, to the end of the age."

Acts 18:10
For I am with you, and no one will lay a hand on you to hurt you, because I have many people in this city."

"The Lord is with you"

Judges 6:12
Then the Angel of the LORD appeared to him and said: “The LORD is with you, mighty warrior.”

2 Samuel 7:3
So Nathan told the king, “Go and do all that is on your heart, for the LORD is with you.”

2 Chronicles 15:2
So he went out to meet Asa and said to him, "Asa and all Judah and Benjamin, hear me. The LORD is with you when you are with Him. If you seek Him, He will be found by you, but if you abandon Him, He will abandon you.

2 Chronicles 20:17
You do not have to fight this [battle]. Position yourselves, stand still, and see the salvation of the LORD. [He is] with you, Judah and Jerusalem. Do not be afraid or discouraged. Tomorrow, go out to face them, for the LORD is with you. ’ "

Luke 1:28
And [the angel] came to her and said, “Rejoice, favored woman! The Lord is with you.

Sorry I answered so late… It took me a little while to actually compile all of this…
Ummm . . . not so fast.
**The Greek word is kecharitomene that Luke used in his Gospel (Luke 1:28) is the perfect passive participle, which indicates a completed action with permanent result. Thus it translates, "completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." **

The Greek words used to describe Stephen’s state in Acts 6:8 is pleres charis – to be filled with grace.

Remember that Luke wrote the Gospel AND Acts . . .**
 
Janet, if you believed in the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of Jesus Christ in the Eucharist, you would then come to see in time that all the Catholic Church teachings are Jesus Christ in practice and the walk to reach Him, including that of Mary’s.

Everything.
 
Oh! It’s because they said so…
Hey - I TRUST in what Jesus said about his Church - even if YOU don’t:

Acts 16:12-15
***"I have much more to tell you, but you cannot bear it now. ***
**But when he comes, the Spirit of truth, he will guide you to all truth. He will not speak on his own, but he will speak what he hears, and will declare to you the things that are coming. ****He will glorify me, because he will take from what is mine and declare it to you. **
**Everything that the Father has is mine; for this reason I told you that he will take from what is mine and declare it to you. **
 
Ummm . . . not so fast.
The Greek word is kecharitomenethat Luke used in his Gospel (Luke 1:28) is the perfect passive participle, which indicates a completed action with permanent result. Thus it translates, “completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace.”

The Greek words used to describe Stephen’s state in Acts 6:8 is pleres charis – to be filled with grace.
Well let us compare:

What do we read in the Vulgate… as a Catholic you should love this one:
Luke 1:28: Et ingressus Angelus ad eam dixit: Ave gratia plena: Dominus tecum: Benedicta tu in mulieribus.
Acts 6:8: Stephanus autem plenus gratia, et fortitudine faciebat prodigia, et signa magna in populo.

Funny to see it in the Latin though. Word order is not relevant in Latin by the way…

But let’s go back to the Greek…
Mary: κεχαριτωμένη
Stephen: πλήρης χάριτος
She was filled (verb, action completed) and he was full (adjective, no action).

Here is another interesting aspect:

Luke 1:28
καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν· χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη, ὁ κύριος μετὰ σοῦ.
κεχαριτωμένη: Verb - Perfect Passive Participle - Nominative Singular - Feminine of: χαριτόω = to make graceful, endow with grace

Ephesians 1:6
εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ ἧς ἐχαρίτωσεν ἡμᾶς ἐν τῷ ἠγαπημένῳ.
ἐχαρίτωσεν: Verb - Aorist Active Indicative - Third Person Singular of: χαριτόω = to make graceful, endow with grace
 
Janet, if you believed in the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of Jesus Christ in the Eucharist, you would then come to see in time that all the Catholic Church teachings are Jesus Christ in practice and the walk to reach Him, including that of Mary’s.

Everything.
Well I guess I do not fulfill the requirements then…
I do not believe the Roman Catholic Eucharistic theology to be true.
I do however wish to live for Jesus Christ and love Him with all of my heart, with all my mind and with all my strength.
He alone is my Lord and my God.
 
rinnie -
Again - you are stating Catholic belief - ALMOST.

**The Catholic Church does not **define conceptions as merely the sperm joining the egg. TRUE conception, according to the Church, is when soul is created and infused into the body. Mary’s was an Immaculate Conception. If it were not - the Church - the pillar and fondation of Truth - would not refer to it as such.

The Church does not teach nor have I implied that this was accomplished by Mary - but by GOD alone.
I agree with you too Elvis, and we are on the same page. But what I am trying to get across is that Mary was saved from sin by God at the moment of her comming into being.

She would have had original sin also, like us because she did come from regular parents like us, but the difference is at the moment of her conception she was saved from original sin. Yes Mary was conceived without sin but ONLY because she was spared by God from orignal sin. But what I am trying to say is she would have had original sin if she was not saved at her conception. We still as Catholic’s have to stress that she was saved from sin by Baptism also. But it was by the merits of Jesus her Son. That is what I am trying to stress here. Thats all.

But I agree she was conceived without sin because of the Grace of God at the moment of her conception. We have to again continue to stress that. Because she also needed a Saviour like us.

But another point we can prove is if she was conceived IN sin and God let Sin touch her then they would have to admit that God would let the finger of Satan touch his Son made flesh,.

Because in 2. Sam the ark is so Holy and pure that when Uzzah touched it the Lord slew him. Which shows the ark if undefiled. So Mary the Ark of the New and everlasting covenant had to be even more immaculate and undefiled so she could bare his eternal word made flesh in her womb.

But the other reason I want to stress this is because when Jesus was conceived there was no Original sin to be spared from because she was completely free from all sin. Do you see where I am going with this now.

Mary was spared from sin at her conception because of original sin from her parents. But Jesus wasn’t because his Mother was not touched by it. That is all I want to stress, and I hope I explained it right.

Which proves again she was free from All sin.

That is why I like to use Mary being free from sin as proof that she had to be, for Jesus to be free from it also.
 
Well I guess I do not fulfill the requirements then…
I do not believe the Roman Catholic Eucharistic theology to be true.
I do however wish to live for Jesus Christ and love Him with all of my heart, with all my mind and with all my strength.
He alone is my Lord and my God.
But then how do you deny him in the Church? If you wish to live for him and love him how can you deny his words that he is dwelling in the Church by the power of the Holy Spirit?

Why do you deny this holinesss that the Church invites all of us to be rooted in the presence of the Holy Spirit and manifested in the sacramental life of the CHurch, especially the Eucharist.

The CHurch is built on the lasting foundation the 12 apostles of the Lamb. Rev. 21:14. The Church is indestructible simply because God is indestructible.

Why do you then deny the Church as a spiritual communion, a divine reality, a mystical body that is identifiable in the world though the marks that distinguish it and point to it as Christ one Truth Church?:confused:
 
Hey - I TRUST in what Jesus said about his Church - even if YOU don’t:

Acts 16:12-15
***"I have much more to tell you, but you cannot bear it now. ***
But when he comes, the Spirit of truth, he will guide you to all truth. He will not speak on his own, but he will speak what he hears, and will declare to you the things that are coming. He will glorify me, because he will take from what is mine and declare it to you.
Everything that the Father has is mine; for this reason I told you that he will take from what is mine and declare it to you.
That is because you simply accept Jesus at his word! He build his Church on the lasting foundation and promised us he would not leave us Orphans.😃
 
But then how do you deny him in the Church? If you wish to live for him and love him how can you deny his words that he is dwelling in the Church by the power of the Holy Spirit?

Why do you deny this holinesss that the Church invites all of us to be rooted in the presence of the Holy Spirit and manifested in the sacramental life of the CHurch, especially the Eucharist.

The CHurch is built on the lasting foundation the 12 apostles of the Lamb. Rev. 21:14. The Church is indestructible simply because God is indestructible.

Why do you then deny the Church as a spiritual communion, a divine reality, a mystical body that is identifiable in the world though the marks that distinguish it and point to it as Christ one Truth Church?:confused:
Why? Because I do not believe this to be true and I refuse to submit to the pope. If I did believe and submit, I would have remained in the Catholic Church.
 
The bible does no say we pray to Mary it tells us that Mary can interceed for us in prayer. From the very beginning actually.
Luke 1:44 Mary’s VOICE causes John the Baptist to leap for joy in Elizabeth womb. Luke is teaching us Mary is our powerful intercessor.

Luke ;46 Mary claims her soul magnifies the Lord. Strong testimony to her uniqueness, Mary our Mother and intercessor also magnifies OUR prayers.

Luke 1:49 Mary prophesies that all generations shall call her blessed, as Catholics do in the Hail Mary prayer. What protestant churches have existed in all generations (easy answer here, NONE) and how many call Mary blessed with special prayers and devotions?

In the O,T the Davidic Kingdom the kind does not refuse his mother, Jesus is the King of the New Davidic King, and he does not refuse the requests of his Mother. Mary the Queen.

In the O.T Davidic Kingdom the Queen intercedes on behalf of the Kings followers. She is the QUEEN MOTHER.
Nothing you are saying states that the Bible says it is alright to pray to Mary and have her answer any prayer or ‘pass it on’ to God. Mary is the mother of Jesus. She was the greatest women ever to live, be that is all.

What you are doing is trying to make the verses fit your argument, but it doesn’t work.
 
To answer the OPs question, I can’t think of any Christian group that is hostile to Mary. Does anyone here no any that are?
 
'zactly!!

LOVE that you used the correct mathematical symbol for 2 cents.

Pet peeve: use of this:** .02 cents** to mean 2 cents. Grrrr!! Learn your decimal points, people!
there, there, PRmerger…it will be all right, and I’ll make you a deal. I won’t use .02 cents to refer to 2 cents, if you won’t use ‘hypothetical’ as a noun. OK? We’ll both feel much better, knowing that at least one other person out there understands our pain. 😉
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top