Ani Ibi:
So if conventional carpet bombing and atomic bombing were not that different in terms of collateral damage…then why was the atomic bomb chosen in 1945?
Because it made a bigger bang. Essentially an attempt at terrorizing the Japanese into surrender. Of course, I can’t prove that right here, so that remains just an unsubtantiated opinion.
Regarding the entire city not being the target, you have a point. I’ll need to amend my position. Instead of claiming that the atomic bomb had the entire city as its target, I’ll say that the atomic bomb’s target included a large area which included many non-combatants. So it’s still wrong, in my formulation, because it targeted non-combatants, but I’ve reduced the target area to be more in line with actuality (otherwise I would have to pretend that a single 1945-era atomic bomb is equally capable of destroying Los Angeles as Manhattan, despite the huge difference in city area).
To rebut this claim, you’ll need to rebut the following:
Syllogism 1
Premise 1: A proximate intention is an intention intrinsic to the nature of the object.
Premise 2: The nature of a nuclear bomb is to destroy everything within its target area
Conclusion: The proximate intention of a nuclear bomb is to destroy everything within its target area.
Syllogism 2
Premise 1: The target area in the two nuclear bombings in question consisted a large part of the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, including all non-combatants within this area.
Premise 2: The proximate intention of a nuclear bomb is to destroy everything within its target area (from S1, above).
Conclusion: The proximate intention of the bombings in question was to destroy a large part of the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, including all non-combatants within the area.