P
PickyPicky
Guest
Indeed Gildas didn’t use the word “race”. But then he didn’t use the words “nation, people, tribe, etc”. (A) because, as you say, he wrote in Latin, (B) because Modern English, and therefore those words, didn’t exist. From the words he did use, however, it’s pretty clear that racism has existed for at least 1500 years.Is this not a translation from Latin? Race could very well have been selected as a word at the translators discretion instead of nation, people, tribe, etc .