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Khalfan, here is an advice from someone who is used to these same questions from Muslims time after time because muslims project their ideas on our scriptures. The gospels as you surely know by now are written by different people…logic follows that you will find different details about the same event Now if you believe that the author of the Quran is only one, then how come we find the same passages repeated many times with different details? did Allah forget the details the first time and had to “insert” them in another “revelation”? or was he learning history from someone?well the gospels are totally different…they were written by MANY and you are objecting to the different details yet your book was written by supposedly one and you raise no eyebrow as to why details vary if the author is one? reconcile the events in the gospels is all you need to form a general picture of what could have happened since they were not written so that you make a movie out of them but to preach to you about God’s love and salvation.
I prefer an answer for atleast one question.
 
Well, I will go with this one. This (like much of the rest of your questions), is part of the old levitical law, which has been replaced by the law of Christ.
But the word in the original is not “bastard”, it is “mamzer”. A mamzer is not someone who is born out of wedlock; it is someone who is conceived from a prohibited relationship.
The idea is to keep the Israelites from following the custom of the Egyptians, who routinely married brother to sister, or parent to child. It was never intended as a punishment for the child. It was intended to make it unattractive to continue that among God’s chosen people. For starters, it was unhealthy. It perpetuated all kinds of illnesses & birth defects.
As always in Christianity, the children have to suffer becasue of their parents, right?

Second thing, Jesus (pbuh) asked to follow the commandmends and to keep the law. He didn’t come to REPLACE any law but to fulfill.

Anyway thanks for the answer.
 
You have asked too many questions in one thread. You need to ask one question at a time. it’s to hard to even follow the conversation if you list them all like that. Besides, you will get much more thorough answers if you ask one at a time.

So what one question do you prefer we answer?
The first one for you.

According to Christian apologetics, four gospels are different angles of the same events. Can anyone combine these four gospels of the same events and make it into a scene as it happened in reality?
In the gospel of Mark (10:17-18. see Luke 18:18-19), a man is reported to have asked Jesus, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life? "Jesus (P) simply replied, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. You know the commandments: ‘You shall not murder; You shall not commit adultery; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; You shall not defraud; Honor your father and mother.’ "

Look at the same event in Matthew. “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good. …” (Matthew 19:16-17)

What was the actual question and actual answer?
 
Let say we are police and want to make report of the same event. That 20 students can vary in details becuse they say what they saw. It can contain mistakes. For example, even if the theif had black hair, their may be students who said, it was brown or something else. Few students may say he was wearing ablack leather coat but few may say it was dark blue. End of the day we Police need a picture of the person to continue investigation. We cannot make a picture of a thief with brownblack hair wearing blueblack jacket. The bottom line is, we don’t have the true picture of the theif. Becasue the picture is supposed to come from the memory of the students which defenitly contains errors. Otherwise there wouldn’t be contradictions.

Isn’t it the same situation with the details of Jesus (pbuh) given in Gospels? We don’t get the true picture of Jesus (pbuh) from the details given in Gospels because it too made out of their memory which can contain errors.
While you are correct that there might be minor discrepancies the overlying truth of the matter is apparent. Knowing what color their hair is or what color their jacket was is not necessary when understanding what activity occurred. It is the underlying message and meaning of the activity which truly matters.

Khalfan said:
“Judge not, that ye be not judged” -Matthew 7:1

“Judge not, and ye shall not be judged, condemn not and ye shall not be condemned: forgive, and ye shall be forgiven” -Luke 6:37.

Why there is courts in Christian countries?

This is a very good question. What these verses were speaking in regards to is the lack of person’s ability to judge whether a man is deserving of heaven or hell in a religious and moral sense. It is only God who can choose to judge a human’s morality or salvation. It is also a statement against hypocrisy.

Secondly, we have courts in “Christian” countries (I suppose you are thinking of countries that have a high population of Christians. Although Christianity may influence politics it is not a governmental religion such as Islam) because they are necessary for the protection of the population. The well-being of our population is an immediate concern and should therefore be handled immediately. Although we are imperfect and completely incapable of providing a accurate moral judgement of a person we can judge objectively whether someone did or did not perform an action. Our courts decide whether someone performed a specific action… NOT their moral standing with God.

Khalfan said:
“And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven” -Matthew 23:9

Why there is fathers in Churches?

This is also a good question. However, if you take the verse in the context of the Chapter you can see Jesus was speaking against the abuse of the Pharisaism. And it is not the explicit use of the word “Father” which Jesus is denouncing but the implications it carried during that time. It is important to consider the context of the Bible during it’s time to fully understand it’s meaning.

Khalfan said:
“You shall not make any cuttings in your flesh on account of the dead or tattoo any marks upon you. I am the Lord”-Leviticus 19:28.

Whay many Christians have tattoo?

This practice was to separate Jews from the common practice of local religions to tattoo themselves at the funerals of their family members to appease their ancestors. It was essentially denouncing the act of pagan and ancestor worship. If you look at the surrounding verses you can see many practices which are no longer practiced.

Levitical Law is no longer the law that people abide. Jesus came to fulfill the Law. I suggest reading Romans.

While looking at your questions I realized you continually took things out of context. It is also apparent that you have many gaps in your understanding of Christianity. Maybe it is better that you post one question at a time to get a complete answer.

If you flood the board with multiple “contradictions” it appears you are making an attack. If you post one question at a time so we can go into depth and answer your questions in full we would be more than happy to answer them.

Respectfully,
Mark
 
The first one for you.

According to Christian apologetics, four gospels are different angles of the same events. Can anyone combine these four gospels of the same events and make it into a scene as it happened in reality?
In the gospel of Mark (10:17-18. see Luke 18:18-19), a man is reported to have asked Jesus, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life? "Jesus (P) simply replied, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. You know the commandments: ‘You shall not murder; You shall not commit adultery; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; You shall not defraud; Honor your father and mother.’ "

Look at the same event in Matthew. “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good. …” (Matthew 19:16-17)

What was the actual question and actual answer?
I believe AllWeather answered that question in Post #13.

Respectfully,
Mark
 
I prefer an answer for atleast one question.
this is an answer to any difference in detail you might find. Apply the logic you use to reconcile the differing quranic passages and you’ll get your answer.
 
Actually, the original copies of all the written sources have completely disappeared. The oldest fragment of any portion of the New Testament dates from the 2nd century, 100 years after Jesus’ death. The next oldest fragments (of Matthew, Luke, John, and Thomas) date to about 200. The first complete copy of the Greek New Testament (Codex Sinaiticus) is from the 4th century. Thus, three centuries separate Jesus from the earliest complete surviving copies of the gospels.

The translations all of us use are not even from a single source - they are formed from about 5000 Greek manuscripts that contain all or parts of the New Testament.
is there possibility that four gospels were written by eye witnesses and it is our hand as it was originally written?
 
this is an answer to any difference in detail you might find. Apply the logic you use to reconcile the differing quranic passages and you’ll get your answer.
I don’t understand how to combine these gospels with any logic, unles I conclude, it can be a human error of memory loss of writers of the same event as it can happen to any news reporters of the same event.

In the gospel of Mark (10:17-18. see Luke 18:18-19), a man is reported to have asked Jesus, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life? "Jesus (P) simply replied, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. You know the commandments: ‘You shall not murder; You shall not commit adultery; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; You shall not defraud; Honor your father and mother.’ "

Look at the same event in Matthew. “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good. …” (Matthew 19:16-17)

What was the actual question and actual answer?
 
OK, let me try. Let’s take the first “problem” you posed.

**""In the gospel of Mark (10:17-18. see Luke 18:18-19), a man is reported to have asked Jesus, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life? "Jesus (P) simply replied, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. You know the commandments: ‘You shall not murder; You shall not commit adultery; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; You shall not defraud; Honor your father and mother.’ "

Look at the same event in Matthew. “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” "Why do you ask me about what is good?** There is only one who is good. …" (Matthew 19:16-17)""

First, I’d like to note that your quote of Matthew 19:17 is not accurate according to my KJV. In my KJV verse 17 reads this way: “And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.”

So, based on this error in your transcription, I am forced to conclude that all three gospels are in agreement. Even if Mt 19:17 read the way you said it reads, there’d be no contradiction as far as I can see. Jesus is identifying himself with God. The man calls Jesus good. Jesus replies that, indeed, only God is truly good, which is equivalent to Jesus making the claim to be God, which he was. He then goes on to give the man his answer: Obey the commandments. This is the same answer given by God.
You are right. I have another serious problem here. Is KJV a catholic version of Bible? I don’t know. I think Douay-Rheims Bible is a catholic version. Check the below.

Matthew 19:16 And behold one came and said to him: Good master, what good shall I do that I may have life everlasting? 17 Who said to him: Why asketh thou me concerning good? One is good, God.

drbo.org/

So, based on this transcription error in Bible versions, I am forced to conclude that, you are in deep trouble in choosing the correct version of translation.

If you reject this version of Bible, I will withdraw my question on Mt 19:17. Otherwise, you still have to answer, how do you combine Matthew 19:16-17 with Luke 18:18-19 or with Mark 10:17-18.
 
You are right. I have another serious problem here. Is KJV a catholic version of Bible? I don’t know. I think Douay-Rheims Bible is a catholic version. Check the below.

Matthew 19:16 And behold one came and said to him: Good master, what good shall I do that I may have life everlasting? 17 Who said to him: Why asketh thou me concerning good? One is good, God.

drbo.org/

So, based on this transcription error in Bible versions, I am forced to conclude that, you are in deep trouble in choosing the correct version of translation.

If you reject this version of Bible, I will withdraw my question on Mt 19:17. Otherwise, you still have to answer, how do you combine Matthew 19:16-17 with Luke 18:18-19 or with Mark 10:17-18.
Now someone approached him and said, “Teacher, what good must I do to gain eternal life?”
17
He answered him, “Why do you ask me about the good? There is only One who is good. 13 If you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments.” Matthew

An official asked him this question, “Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
19
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. Luke

“Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
18
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? 3 No one is good but God alone.
19
You know the commandments: Mark

I had to put the 3 passages because i still did not understand where is the confusion.
 
While you are correct that there might be minor discrepancies the overlying truth of the matter is apparent. Knowing what color their hair is or what color their jacket was is not necessary when understanding what activity occurred. It is the underlying message and meaning of the activity which truly matters.
Can there be minor discrepancies, if the writings were inspired by the same Spirit?
This is a very good question. What these verses were speaking in regards to is the lack of person’s ability to judge whether a man is deserving of heaven or hell in a religious and moral sense. It is only God who can choose to judge a human’s morality or salvation. It is also a statement against hypocrisy.
Secondly, we have courts in “Christian” countries (I suppose you are thinking of countries that have a high population of Christians. Although Christianity may influence politics it is not a governmental religion such as Islam) because they are necessary for the protection of the population. The well-being of our population is an immediate concern and should therefore be handled immediately. Although we are imperfect and completely incapable of providing a accurate moral judgement of a person we can judge objectively whether someone did or did not perform an action. Our courts decide whether someone performed a specific action… NOT their moral standing with God.
OK. What is meant by the bolded part below?

“Judge not, and ye shall not be judged, condemn not and ye shall not be condemned: forgive, and ye shall be forgiven” -Luke 6:37.
This is also a good question. However, if you take the verse in the context of the Chapter you can see Jesus was speaking against the abuse of the Pharisaism. And it is not the explicit use of the word “Father” which Jesus is denouncing but the implications it carried during that time. It is important to consider the context of the Bible during it’s time to fully understand it’s meaning.
What ‘Father’ and ‘Son of God’ implicated that time?
This practice was to separate Jews from the common practice of local religions to tattoo themselves at the funerals of their family members to appease their ancestors. It was essentially denouncing the act of pagan and ancestor worship. If you look at the surrounding verses you can see many practices which are no longer practiced.
Levitical Law is no longer the law that people abide. Jesus came to fulfill the Law. I suggest reading Romans.
But Jesus (pbuh) asked follow the law, keep the commandmends? How can Paul write against it?
While looking at your questions I realized you continually took things out of context. It is also apparent that you have many gaps in your understanding of Christianity. Maybe it is better that you post one question at a time to get a complete answer.
If you flood the board with multiple “contradictions” it appears you are making an attack. If you post one question at a time so we can go into depth and answer your questions in full we would be more than happy to answer them.
Respectfully,
Mark
You can choose the question. Thank you for answers.
 
Now someone approached him and said, “Teacher, what good must I do to gain eternal life?”
17
He answered him, “Why do you ask me about the good? There is only One who is good. 13 If you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments.” Matthew

An official asked him this question, “Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
19
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. Luke

“Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
18
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? 3 No one is good but God alone.
19
You know the commandments: Mark

I had to put the 3 passages because i still did not understand where is the confusion.
Which version you quoted it from?

What was the actual question (both are bolded) that asked and what was the actual answer that given (both are bolded)?
 
Can there be minor discrepancies, if the writings were inspired by the same Spirit?

🙂

A very important point must be explained whenever a Christian-Muslim dialogue is at hand.

In Judeo-Christianity, being inspired does not mean that an angel appeared to x and shook the heck out of him and commanded him to write/read. Spirits who appear to prophets , and who frighten them making a prophet unable to distinguish between an angel and being demon-possessed is Mohammad’s scenario am afraid.Still yet we have discrepancies in the Quran when the author is supposed to be one 🙂

In other words, being inspired does NOT mean that 40 people write the same exact words. It means that God inspires each one to write about either a different thing or the same thing using the person’s own style and expression and personality; Inspiration does not mean you become some angel’s robot 🙂

So this “they did not utter the same word” scenario is really alien to Jews and Christians. So yes different people can write about the same event with different details that might look strange because one has to put in mind that the audiance is different, the author is different, and the end for writting is different, the means of convincing is different. You don’t give a Jew the same details you’d give a pagan and you don’t explain to a Jew in the same way you explain to a pagan.

Example, To a Jew, i have to add the detail that 2 people saw that Jesus did x,y,z because in the Jewish Law there must be 2 or more witnesses otherwise a Jew will not be convinced. If, however, i am telling the same thing to a pagan, i don’t have to mention that more than 2 witnesses were present because that’s not an issue to a pagan. This does not mean that there is a descripancy in both accounts; it just reflects the fact that both accounts were written to different people with different emphasis.
 
Now someone approached him and said, “Teacher, what good must I do to gain eternal life?”
17
He answered him, “Why do you ask me about the good? There is only One who is good. 13 If you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments.” Matthew

An official asked him this question, “Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
19
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. Luke

“Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?”
18
Jesus answered him, "Why do you call me good? 3 No one is good but God alone.
19
You know the commandments: Mark

Question:
Teacher, what good must I do to gain eternal life?"
Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?"
Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?"

and the answer is the same.

I still fail to see the problem.

I quoted from nccbuscc.org/
 
Glad to have you back InJesus…
I hope to have your knowledge one of these days so I can answer so confidently as you
 
You are right. I have another serious problem here. Is KJV a catholic version of Bible? I don’t know. I think Douay-Rheims Bible is a catholic version. Check the below.

Matthew 19:16 And behold one came and said to him: Good master, what good shall I do that I may have life everlasting? 17 Who said to him: Why asketh thou me concerning good? One is good, God.

drbo.org/

So, based on this transcription error in Bible versions, I am forced to conclude that, you are in deep trouble in choosing the correct version of translation.

If you reject this version of Bible, I will withdraw my question on Mt 19:17. Otherwise, you still have to answer, how do you combine Matthew 19:16-17 with Luke 18:18-19 or with Mark 10:17-18.
I don’t reject ANY version of the Bible. I used the KJV and made that comment about the difference in order to make a point, the point being that the “differences” you are worried about are not really differences.

Here’s another example. A few years ago I noticed that one translation of Psalm 139:14 read “I will praise thee; for I am fearfully and wonderfully made…”

Another read: ““I will praise thee for thou art fearful and wonderful”” (that is my paraphrase, I do not have that Bible in front of me just now, but my paraphrase is very close). On surface, the two verses seem very different. But in reality they are not. A fearful and wonderful being does fearful and wonderful things. He made a man, and being fearful and wonderful, it follows that the man is fearfully and wonderfully made.

You should apply this same idea to the verses with which you are having problems. They seem different on the surface, but perhaps you aren’t reading closely, or taking full context into consideration. When we read carefully, and in full context, most of the apparent contradictions evaporate, and the few that remain are usually dealt with by more depth in study of history, linguistics, etc.
 
If it is the same God as Mohammedans claim, the Koran has very similar verses that say allah leads astray whom he wills…and other such statements. How/why do you explain allah doing it, but question God from the OT?
Exactly! Here are some examples from the Quran.

Quran 7:54

Your guardian-Lord is Allah who created the heavens and earth in Six Days

Quran 10:3

Verily your Lord is Allah, who created the heavens and earth in Six Days

Quran 11:7

He it is Who created the heavens and earth in Six Days
Quran-25:29: He Who created the heavens and earth and all that is between, in Six Days

And

Quran 41:9

Is it that ye deny Him who created the earth in Two Days ?

Quran 41:10

He set on the (earth) Mountains standing firm high above it, and bestowed blessing on the earth, and measured therein all things to give them nourishment in due proportion, in FOUR DAYS…

Quran 41:12

So He completed them (heavens) as seven firmaments in Two days and …

Muslims can’t see the discrepancies in their own book! Fore more see this link.
Vickie
 
Exactly! Here are some examples from the Quran.

Quran 7:54

Your guardian-Lord is Allah who created the heavens and earth in Six Days

Quran 10:3

Verily your Lord is Allah, who created the heavens and earth in Six Days

Quran 11:7

He it is Who created the heavens and earth in Six Days
Quran-25:29: He Who created the heavens and earth and all that is between, in Six Days

And

Quran 41:9

Is it that ye deny Him who created the earth in Two Days ?

Quran 41:10

He set on the (earth) Mountains standing firm high above it, and bestowed blessing on the earth, and measured therein all things to give them nourishment in due proportion, in FOUR DAYS…

Quran 41:12

So He completed them (heavens) as seven firmaments in Two days and …

Muslims can’t see the discrepancies in their own book! Fore more see this link.
Vickie
Vickie, please… it is my humble request to check the questions, specially when you quote from anti-Islamic sites. Make sure if it is a genuine. Such as the above question, it doesn’t make any sense at all if you read it carefully.

We know, the total days it took is 6.

Diduct the 2 days that took to create the heaven, 6 - 2 = 4

In that 4 days, 2 was to create earth and two was to fix things in it like mountains and all, altogether 4 days to complete earth.

Now, if you can quote the other contradictions too, I will be more than happy to answer you. But please… please… please…
Make sure your question make sense.

Since you quoted Quran, it says one more thing that you won’t agree with.

“We created the Heavens and Earth and that which is between them in six days and no fatigue touched us” (50:38)

God doesn’t get tired. He didn’t REST after creating heaven and earth.

Let me ask you another logical question regrding the same creation of earth and heaven.

Bible says, the sun was created on the third day (Genesis 1:13-18), how possibly the first 2 days and nights came into existence without the sun? May be God was the source of the light for the first two days; but the earth doesn’t move/rotate (1 Chr 16:30, Psalms 93:1, 96:10), how the day and night, morning and evening happened? In the below verse, it clrearly says, it is not the earth but the sun runs around the earth.

‘The sun rises and the sun sets, and hurries back to where it rises’. -Ecclesiastes 1:5.
 
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