Young Catholics Causing Rebirth of Tridentine Mass

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But thankfully that was the result.
Now people all over the world can worship God in a language that they understand.
Worshiping and giving glory to God is the most important thing.
 
semper_catholicus said:
How isn’t that an infallible pronouncement?
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Because they didn’t say ‘you must only use Latin’. They said you can’t use something that’s not in the formula of the Latin Missal. That’s not the same thing.

But I do want to see your excerpt. Legitimately, I’m interested and prepared to learn (not a smart comment, I swear).
 
Worshiping and giving glory is important. But it isn’t all about ‘a language that they can understand’ as if for 1950 years Christians were all deprived until somebody ignored what was actually decided by the Church and decided out of the blue to do something else.
 
TheAmazingGrace said:
Canon 9. If anyone says that the rite of the Roman Church, according to which a part of the canon and the words of consecration are pronounced in a low tone, is to be condemned; or that the mass ought to be celebrated in the vernacular tongue only ; or that water ought not to be mixed with the wine that is to be offered in the chalice because it is contrary to the institution of Christ, let him be anathema.
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Amazing grace to it before I even replied to you.
 
That’s canon law, not the transcript/Catechism from the Counsel.

The Mass isn’t celebrated in the vernacular only, actually.
 
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stpurl said:
But it isn’t all about ‘a language that they can understand’
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It is for me, in large part. The OF Mass is the only worship venue I’ve ever known, and I’m tired of seeing it get disparaged.
 
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When was it repealed? You can’t repeal infallible pronouncements from ecumenical councils.
 
You are hung up on Latin.
Perhaps the Church of the past was, as well.
God wants us to worship God, and to love and serve one another as brothers and sisters.
Praying and giving glory to God does not have to be done in Latin.
God speaks all languages! LOL
 
semper_catholicus said:
When was it repealed? You can’t repeal infallible pronouncements from ecumenical councils.
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Repealed is the wrong word, yes. That is fair and my fault.

In 1983, the charge of anathema was removed from canon law.
 
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I’ll ask again, directed at no individual whatsoever, if there is ‘no superiority’ then why are people arguing that there is no superiority?

The proper response to a question of "do you prefer A or B’, if there is no question that one finds one ‘better’, is “either one is fine”.

If you find A or B to be what you prefer, then you believe that one is superior --that does not mean you hate the other or disrespect it, but you find one is closer to what you think is true.
 
So if I deny a dogma, or something to which I must give my assent, I’m not anathema?
 
Hard to charge you with something that doesn’t exist on the books.

I’m assuming canon law is pretty much like every other legal code with that observation.

I would agree if you said “they made a loophole”, because it does seem that they did, but it’s there nonetheless (or not there, in this case).
 
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I would agree with all that - but the problems arise when people post how their preference is the only licit one and actually is superior, or insinuate things along those lines.

And that is happening in this thread, in multiple posts. So people are going to respond.
 
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And the thing is, if something IS superior, again, it doesn’t mean that the other thing isn’t perfectly valid or helpful or good.

They are both licit. I think one is intrinsically superior for a variety of reasons, but I can also see that, again for a variety of reasons, some people are just not ready to be able to worship in that way right now. And that is not because I think the people are stupid, incapable, wrong-headed, etc. Again, it’s due to a lot of circumstances, and the people themselves are perfectly intelligent, loving, and are being absolutely totally fully nourished by the other rite–at this time.

If I were going for an operation I’d need to be on an IV before, and probably clears, then full liquids, then a bland diet afterward. I’d be perfectly well nourished by those things, and in fact, I would do a heck of a lot better with those diets than by settling down with a ‘regular meal’ which, while good in itself, could wind up sending me back to the hospital.

Or suppose I just wanted to be more mindful of the earth’s resources and went on a “meatless Monday-Wed” diet. I’d still eat meat occasionally, because it’s good, and those meatless days wouldn’t be inferior (or superior) to the ‘regular’ meal. But (for the planet) one could argue that eating less of certain things (not just meat) but other good things as well is superior, even though eating a moderate and well-balanced diet without going farther than that is still fine.

I’m probably rambling a bit but I’m just trying to think things out a bit.
 
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