But that is exactly what your challenge is.
I meant I do not want to get into a discussion of the theoretical basis of the role that the courts should play in interpreting the constitution. (A matter that has been decided for all intents and purposes over the history of our country.) Like it or not, the courts interpret the constitution.
No, it does not. The amendment is the still the basis of the courts’ decisions. We can all have opinions about the 4th amendment does or does not do, but the only opinions that matter are judicial opinions.
At some point the amendment must stand on its own.
Amendments never stand on their own. Even the most radical originalist would not argue against looking at the historical context of a constitutional texts’ drafting.
And, as I pointed out, the framers’ views of the 4th amendment would not prevent a reasonable, warrantless that was not supported by probable cause. The probable cause standard was a higher standard that was to be applied to the issuance of a warrant, not a warrantless search.
Here is the text of the 4th amendment:
“The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.”
Notice, the only requirement for a search (as opposed to the issuance of warrant) is reasonableness.
What specifically is your argument that the new procedures violate the 4th amendment, other than the new procedures violate the 4th amendment because they violate the 4th amendment?