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Good_Fella
Guest
The early Church Fathers have left us no writings in which they explicitly mention the Assumption. But by examining what they have taught us about Mary, it is safe to assume that they believed in this event and may have referred to it when preaching. Justin Martyr (A.D. 155) and Irenaeus (A.D. 180), for instance, typified Mary as the new Eve in the economy of salvation. They couldn’t have been consistent in their typologies if they were inclined to believe that the mother of our Lord was not exempt from the universal law of sin and the corruption of death incurred by Adam’s fall through Eve’s participation. Hippolytus of Rome (ante A.D. 235) typifies Mary as the ark of the New Covenant, the “tabernacle” of our Lord, who was “exempt from putridity and corruption”. It would be unreasonable for a bishop to believe that Mary’s body lay decayed in a tomb while comparing her with the pure and undefiled ark of the Old Covenant, especially if he were familiar with Revelation 11:19, 12:1.…we certainly had the early church father writings that were in fact written before 400 AD and NONE of them ever mention any assumption…they mention a lot about Mary which is parallel but like I said they omitted the assumption.
Moreover, we find an implicit reference to the Immaculate Conception of Mary in the analogy drawn by Hippolytus. Belief in Mary’s freedom from the stain of original sin may have already existed in private quarters of the Church by this time. (The Church hadn’t yet unanimously defined the concept of original sin.). Pope Pius Xll cited the dogma of the Immaculate Conception in his Apostolic Constitution *Munificentissimus Deus * where he gives reasons for his decision to declare the Assumption a dogma of the Church. In a homily of his, Origen (A.D. 244) describes Mary as the “Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten Son of God, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one”. An exception to the law of human nature. I suspect Origen was aware of the oral Tradition of the Assumption that had existed by the time of Epiphanius (A.D. 377) and, not unlike the latter, questioned whether Mary had actually died, not whether she actually had been assumed into heaven by the power of her divine Son. Ignatius of Antioch (c.A.D. 110) taught that Jesus “was both of God and of Mary”, a divine Person of the Trinity “who existed in the flesh”, made of a woman, in the words of the apostle Paul. I wouldn’t want to try to convince the bishop that this very flesh that had formed and suckled our risen Lord has rotted in the tomb.
PAX :harp: