My apologies. Work schedule prevents me from keeping up very closely with an entire thread and knowing who is what.
JTBT said:
the point of Matt 9, Luke 5, and Mark2 is not that men have authority to forgive sins, the point is that Jesus (who is God) has the authority to forgive sin. the other thing you have to take into account is who is speaking, the plural form of the word men is not said by Jesus it is said by the crowd, just because this is what the crowd said does nothing to prove for or against confession. Some members of the crowd also said Jesus was blaspheming is this true just because some members of the crowd said it; it is right there in black and white?
With all due respect, but that is what I would classify as a “weak argument.” Apostolic succession was not the point of the psalm that Peter quotes in Acts 1, was it? So, would you then say Peter is making a “weak argument” for apostolic succession by quoting that psalm?
Plus, by what authority do you declare that the point of Matt 9 is not that men have the authority on earth to forgive sin? Is that not simply your interpretation? An interpretation colored by the fact that you came to Scripture with the preconceived belief that men do not have the authority on earth to forgive sins? Forgive me, but doesn’t Jesus forgive this man’s sins in such a way that He makes the crowd believe that the authority on earth to forgive sins was given to “men”? Jesus knew what the crowd was thinking, didn’t He? Yet, does He say, “No, no. The point of this is that I alone have the authority to forgive sin”?
And, if one of the points isn’t that God gave men the authority on earth to forgive sins, then why does the Holy Spirit-inspired writer record that as the final word on this particular incident? He could have left out that last sentence completely, couldn’t he? Yet, he didn’t. I wonder why?
Do all the words of Scripture have meaning or not? If you believe they do, then what, pray tell, do you believe the words in Matt 9:6-8 to mean?
Which is the weaker argument:
a) I believe what Matt 9:6-8 says - I believe that God gave the authority on earth to forgive sins to men as it is clearly stated in these verses; or
b) I don’t believe what Matt 9:6-8 says - I don’t believe God gave the authority on earth to forgive sins to men - because I believe the crowd got it wrong?
So, I will return to what I said in the previous post. The Sacrament of Confession is all about men having authority on earth to forgive sins. It is God’s authority, but He exercises this authority through men. Sort of like those who have the gift of healing. It is God’s authority by which the healing is done, but He exercises that authority through men.
Does this verse say, yes or no, that God gave men the authority on earth to forgive sins? Indeed it does. In other words, what Catholics believe - God gave men authority on earth to forgive sins - is clearly stated in the inspired words of Scripture. So, having this evidence before you, will you deny that the Catholics have biblical justification for their belief in this particular matter?
Also, can you give me the verse of the Bible that states we are to confess our sins to God and God alone, if that is indeed your belief?
BTW Protestants don’t really believe “Bible Only” the way that is presented most of the time, we do have tradition
Oh, I know that Protestants have tradition. Unfortunately, you are one of the few Protestants I’ve ever come across who actually realizes that. Still, my arguments are valid whether Protestants recognize some sort of tradition or not.