A
Angelos
Guest
I have a couple of questions :Why do you find that hard to believe? Wasn’t Isaiah a prophet? Don’t prophets foretell the future?
Who gave them authority to bear the sins of all Jews (of their generation)? Jewish teaching did.
You see, Judaism teaches that sometimes, God chooses certain righteous Jews to bear the sins of the rest of their generation (note, this does not mean they bear the sins of ALL Jews or ALL people of ALL time, but only those of their specific generation.)
This is probably where the early Christians (being of Jewish origin) got their idea from, of Jesus supposedly “bearing the sins of the world”…except that in Jewish teaching, the suffering servant(s) do not bear the sins of ALL people of ALL time (as Christians claim Jesus does), but only all the Jews of THAT generation.
If you want to learn more about this, see Derech Hashem by Rabbi Moshe Chaim Luzzatto.
1) Does Isaiah say that every certain Jew can be designated as the suffering servant of God whenever he/she surrenders to atrocities by oppressive people? What is the essential criterion that determines which Jew can bear the sins of which Jew?
2) Why is Isaiah the only prophet to talk of the suffering servant?
3) Since you claim that some Jews oppressed recurrently bear the sins of some other Jews, when for the first time in history was Isaiah’s prediction fulfilled? During the Roman invasion in 70 A.D. or 1945? Jews had suffered until the holocaust by Nazis. Did Isaiah’s prophecy come true prior to that date? When? How?
4) Why do Jews of our time in Israel retaliate when Muslims attack them and suicide bombers blow up themselves in the Holy Land? Have Jews given up the idea of becoming God’s suffering servant in Isaiah and bearing the sins of their fellows? Why is it not possible now for Isaiah’s prophecy to come true?
Thanks and shalom.