Does the Trinity have one mind or three minds?

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Just because the Incarnation was the common work of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, doesn’t mean that it wasn’t undertaken by the Son in obedience to the Father.
This is what I was saying with what I was explaining there when speaking of the Son deriving the nature and will from the Father.

If the Father sent the Son and then the Son went to where the Father sent him, it seems clear that the Son obeyed the Father 🤷
 
Dear 河童,
A reflective relationship not allowed because of Divine Simplicity (no parts)
The relations of the Trinity are not different beings in a relationship with each other. Each Person has the same Being and essence and substance. What makes them distinct is not in being or essence, but their inherent opposition to each other, like how Fatherhood is inherently distinct from Sonship.

The relations arise from within God, and it is from them that the polar ends of each relation arises, similar to how direction is relative to each other (what is North without reference to South? Neither exist without the other). This is different from two things entering into a relation, like how a chair and table can have the relationship of being “near each other,” where the table and chair can be said to exist without each other having that or really any relation to each other.
Labeling the boxes differently doesn’t actually make the boxes different.
Similar to how there is a real relation between the knower and the known, there is a real relationship between the Father and Son and Spirit. These are not mere labels, but correspond to a real existence within God.

Christi pax.
 
Question for Plunia: What meaning do you give the Creed’s statement (following scripture) that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is seated at the right hand of the Father?

I’ll tell you the meaning I give it, as far as I am able even to approach thinking about it: even though the Father and the Son and the Spirit are all equally God, there is a certain order or priority between them. Being seated at the right hand of someone in Jesus’ culture connoted a position of honor and esteem. In order for someone to be “honored”, there must be one who bestows “honor” upon them, and there is a sense in which the one who bestows honor is prior to the one on whom he bestows it.
 
The relations of the Trinity are not different beings in a relationship with each other. Each Person has the same Being and essence and substance. What makes them distinct is not in being or essence, but their inherent opposition to each other, like how Fatherhood is inherently distinct from Sonship.

The relations arise from within God, and it is from them that the polar ends of each relation arises, similar to how direction is relative to each other (what is North without reference to South? Neither exist without the other). This is different from two things entering into a relation, like how a chair and table can have the relationship of being “near each other,” where the table and chair can be said to exist without each other having that or really any relation to each other.

Similar to how there is a real relation between the knower and the known, there is a real relationship between the Father and Son and Spirit. These are not mere labels, but correspond to a real existence within God.
But even such an “internal” relation must be denied by divine simplicity. The only reason we have a north/south is because there is a bit of the earth (the north pole) that is different than some other part of the earth (the south pole.) If the earth did not have any bits that were actually different there could be no such north/south relation, and we could not have *any *internal relations.
 
The Divine Simplicity pertains only to the Divine Substance. Otherwise, distinct Divine Persons would be impossible (and God would not be Love because Love requires a plurality of Persons).

The correlativity relation of “north” and “south” is a loose analogy to the correlativity of Father and Son in the Trinity … Father and Son are “internally” related: Father is Father only with respect to Son, and Son is Son only with respect to Father.

But this correlativity is really a love relationship, a radical mutual self-giving, a communio personarum (St John Paul II). The Father pours Himself out totally into the Son, and the Son pours Himself totally into the Father.

It is this Love, this Mutual-Self-Giving, this Interpenetration, this “Circumincession” and “Perichoresis” that preclude subordination and hierarchy.

A contrast to this is found in the subordination and hierarchy in Plotinus where the One does not love the first emanation … the One is not even aware of the first emanation (like Aristotle’s god who is unaware of the cosmos). The Father does not beget the Son like the Plotinian One “begets” the first emanation … because the Father loves the Son, and the Son loves the Father. There is no such “mutual” or “spousal” Love in Plotinus.
Divine simplicity pertains to God full stop. If you look up divine simplicity, none of the explanations say:

The Divine Substance is without the sort of metaphysical complexity where the Divine Substance would have different parts which are distinct from itself.

Divine simplicity implies that when we say God is love, God is existence, and God is omnipotent, we mean that love, existence, omnipotence and God are all identically the same thing.

I will assert that you have merely repeated yourself, and not answered my objection that “internal relations” require distinct “internal parts” which are explicitly denied by divine simplicity.
 
Actually your posts come very close to the heresy of Sabellianism.

Your basic misunderstanding is in assimilating obedience to coercion. I didn’t assert that any person of the Trinity coerces any other member. The Trinity is pure Love.
Arians always accused the orthodox of being Sabellian. But although there is a real distinction between the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit, there is not command and obedience between them. Gregory of Nyssa, writing against Eunomius, says:

“For after employing such language as a member of the Church might use, he subjoins, Obedient with regard to the creation and production of all things that are, obedient with regard to every ministration, not having by His obedience attained Sonship or Godhead, but, as a consequence of being Son and being generated as the Only-begotten God, showing Himself obedient in words, obedient in acts. Yet who of those who are conversant with the oracles of God does not know with regard to what point of time it was said of Him by the mighty Paul, (and that once for all), that He became obedient? For it was when He came in the form of a servant to accomplish the mystery of redemption by the cross, Who had emptied Himself, Who humbled Himself by assuming the likeness and fashion of a man, being found as man in man’s lowly nature— then, I say, it was that He became obedient, even He Who took our infirmities and bare our sicknesses, healing the disobedience of men by His own obedience, that by His stripes He might heal our wound, and by His own death do away with the common death of all men—then it was that for our sakes He was made obedient, even as He became sin and a curse by reason of the dispensation on our behalf, not being so by nature, but becoming so in His love for man. But by what sacred utterance was He ever taught His list of so many obediences? Nay, on the contrary every inspired Scripture attests His independent and sovereign power, saying, He spoke the word and they were made: He commanded and they were created :— for it is plain that the Psalmist says this concerning Him Who upholds all things by the word of His power, Whose authority, by the sole impulse of His will, framed every existence and nature, and all things in the creation apprehended by reason or by sight. Whence, then, was Eunomius moved to ascribe in such manifold wise to the King of the universe the attribute of obedience, speaking of Him as obedient with regard to all the work of creation, obedient with regard to every ministration, obedient in words and in acts? Yet it is plain to every one, that he alone is obedient to another in acts and words, who has not yet perfectly achieved in himself the condition of accurate working or unexceptionable speech, but keeping his eye ever on his teacher and guide, is trained by his suggestions to exact propriety in deed and word. But to think that Wisdom needs a master and teacher to guide aright Its attempts at imitation, is the dream of Eunomius’ fancy, and of his alone.”

newadvent.org/fathers/290102.htm
 
Question for Plunia: What meaning do you give the Creed’s statement (following scripture) that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is seated at the right hand of the Father?

I’ll tell you the meaning I give it, as far as I am able even to approach thinking about it: even though the Father and the Son and the Spirit are all equally God, there is a certain order or priority between them. Being seated at the right hand of someone in Jesus’ culture connoted a position of honor and esteem. In order for someone to be “honored”, there must be one who bestows “honor” upon them, and there is a sense in which the one who bestows honor is prior to the one on whom he bestows it.
“As among men he who sits at the right hand is considered to occupy the most honourable place, so, transferring the same idea to celestial things, to express the glory which Christ as man has obtained above all others, we confess that He sits at the right hand of the Father.”

sourcebooks.fordham.edu/mod/romancat.html
 
“As among men he who sits at the right hand is considered to occupy the most honourable place, so, transferring the same idea to celestial things, to express the glory which Christ as man has obtained above all others, we confess that He sits at the right hand of the Father.”

sourcebooks.fordham.edu/mod/romancat.html
Well, with all due respect to the Council of Trent I don’t think that Christ sitting at the right hand of the Father means just that He is first among creatures. I don’t think the Council of Nicaea would have gone out of its way to emphasize in The Creed something that the Arians would have acknowledged.
 
Well, with all due respect to the Council of Trent I don’t think that Christ sitting at the right hand of the Father means just that He is first among creatures. I don’t think the Council of Nicaea would have gone out of its way to emphasize in The Creed something that the Arians would have acknowledged.
Jesus is God and man. Jesus “sitting at the right hand of the Father” can only refer to His humanity. In His Divinity, Jesus is in the Father, and the Father in Him.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perichoresis
 
“The subsistences then we say are perfect, that we may not conceive of the divine nature as compound. For compoundness is the beginning of separation. And again we speak of the three subsistences as being in each other, that we may not introduce a crowd and multitude of Gods. Owing to the three subsistences, there is no compoundness or confusion: while, owing to their having the same essence and dwelling in one another, and being the same in will, and energy, and power, and authority, and movement, so to speak, we recognise the indivisibility and the unity of God.”

Saint John of Damascus (one of the greatest Doctors of the Orthodox church)

orthodox.net/fathers/exacti.html#BOOK_I_CHAPTER_I
 
I never said that “the right hand of the Father” was a physical place. I said it indicates a certain order between the Father and the Son. Nothing in the linked articles contradicts that.
Agreed, it’s not a physical place. The Roman Catechism agrees too, if you had read the rest of the section I linked.
Second Part of this Article: “Sitteth at the Right Hand of God the Father Almighty”
The words He sitteth at the right hand of the Father form the second part of this Article. In these words we observe a figure of speech; that is, a use of words in other than their literal sense, as frequently happens in Scripture, when, accommodating its language to human ideas, it attributes human affections and human members to God, who, spirit as He is, admits of nothing corporeal.

“At the Right Hand”
As among men he who sits at the right hand is considered to occupy the most honourable place, so, transferring the same idea to celestial things, to express the glory which Christ as man has obtained above all others, we confess that He sits at the right hand of the Father.
“Sitteth”
To sit does not imply here position and posture of body, but expresses the firm and permanent possession of royal and supreme power and glory which He received from the Father, and of which the Apostle says: Raising him up from the dead, and setting him on his right hand in the heavenly places, above all principality, and power, and virtue, and domination, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come; and he hath subjected all things under his feet. These words manifestly imply that this glory belongs to our Lord in so special and exclusive a manner that it cannot apply to any other created being. Hence in another place the Apostle testifies: To which of the angels said he at any time: Sit on my right hand.
sourcebooks.fordham.edu/mod/romancat.html
 
No, the Father and the Son are not the same “thing”. The closest approximation to “thing” in the Greek used by the Fathers and the Councils is the word “hypostasis” and the Fathers and the Councils are clear that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are different hypostases. They share the same divine Nature, but they are different persons.
I understand かっぱ as using “thing” in what Latin and English speakers would translate as substantia and “substance” respectively, and these are themselves translations of what the Greeks call οὐσία.

I know that, etymologically, ὑπόστασις should translate to substantia, since the Greek ὑπό translates to the Latin sub and στασις to stans, but the Latin Fathers decided to translate ὑπόστασις to persona (in English “person”) and ὁμοούσιος as consubstantia. I’d prefer to stick with their choices and in their tradition when speaking in English, since the English expressions of these ideas are rooted in the Latin Fathers’ tradition.

I mean, I guess we could use * essentia*, but the nice thing about consubstantia is that it not only rules out Arianism, but also polytheism. If we were to say that the Father and the Son have the same essentia, that could be interpreted as saying they are two particulars with the same nature, like how you and I are two individuals with the same human nature. But this is equivalent to saying that the Father and Christ are two gods, which is false, as there is only one instance or particular of the Divine Nature, not three (monotheism). By saying they are consubstantial, we are saying they are the same being, the same concrete reality, which inherently means they are the same essence or nature too.

Now, at the same time, “thing” is a very vague word, and we could say that the Father and Son are two things too, as long as we understand that saying that the Father and Son are two things, yet one thing, is an equivocation, because they are two things in regards to relation and procession and one thing in terms of substance, being, and nature.

I translated Kawawappa’s “thing” as referring to substance, being, and nature, because I think his error is in failing to distinguish between the Persons themselves and the sole instantiation of the Divine Nature. He’s doesn’t think we believe in three instances of the Divine Nature, but rather he thinks we really believe, rather than nominally believe due to our mode of knowing, in three parts or attributes of one instance of the Divine nature.

This is actually an easy mistake to make, because to say that the Father and Son are the same substance together doesn’t rule out that they are parts, like how my eyes, emotions, and mind are all one substance, Lucretius, but at the same time different parts that can be separated from each other. The doctine of Divine Simplicity does rule out “parts” in this sense.

But, as St. Thomas explains it, although it is true that in an outer procession, the act terminates outside the agent, the opposite is true in an internal procession, which terminates within the agent himself. He uses an analogy of our own minds, for the deeper our understanding of something, the the more union there is between the knower and the concept, which is by nature/definition the same essence of the the something.

Even still, a perfect understanding of something doesn’t make it have a real existence: just because I completely understand what a rock is, doesn’t mean rocks existence, nor that my existence is that of a rock. So even perfect knowledge of myself doesn’t give my concept of myself existence, because my existence has real distinction from my essence.

But this is different with God, because his existence is his essence. So his concepts actually have existence.

From my understanding, and correct me if I’m making a mistake (this is high level theology here, and theology is the most confusing of all the sciences), when God conceives of things that are not identical to him, through his concept of Himself (the Son), and gives them their existence and life, that is not identical with his experience with His own being, life, existence, essence, etc. (the Spirit), this is called creation ex nihilo. This is an outward procession, which is why the thing is seperate both in existence and essence with God’s and its own existence and essence.

When he conceives of Himself, his very complete and perfect concept of Himself is identical to his existence as well as his essence, and since he knows himself completely and perfectly, His understanding of Himself is in perfect unity with Himself.

God analogically then so knows Himself that the very distinction between Him and His concept of Himself vanishes, which is why we refer to the Son as the Λόγος, and as true God.

But even though God as understood and known by Himself is the same essence and being as God and in complete unity with Him, as we can see from the St. Thomas’ analogy, he is still different in relation to God as knowing and understanding Himself. Even though the relations God knowing and God as known are now the same in essence and being, they are still different in how they arise, they are different in what is called procession. And this is what is meant when we say there is real distinction between the persons, at least according to St. Thomas.

In other words, if I understand the Fathers and St. Thomas and others correctly then, it is the very Divine Simplicity that Katsupa thinks rules out the Trinity that actually makes it possible.

And since only acts of the intellect and will are inner processions, this explains, I think, why there are only processions that terminate in the Son and Spirit. Divine attributes like goodness are simply not relational like acts of the mind and will.

Christi pax.
 
Dear Water Demon,

An analogy by definition is never a perfect identity: and so you are correct that North and South require parts.

However, it is conceivable that there could be a relations within God without the substance of God being broken into parts: through intellectual and volitional procession. This is because, unlike an external procession which terminates outside the agent, interior processions like conception and volition terminate in the agent himself.

When we understand something, and understand it completely, we aren’t breaking its essence into parts, although we are breaking its essence from its existence. Our understanding of some thing is the very same essence of that some thing, even though the some thing has existence while our concept of the some thing doesn’t (I can conceive of a unicorn, but I cannot conceive it into existence).

Furthermore, the more our understanding of something increases, the more unity the concept has with ourselves. The more we know, the closer we are to the thing known. When we understand something, we in a sense become the thing itself. Just as eating takes the material of something and makes it one with our body, so intellection takes the essence of a thing and makes it one with our intellect. This is what Aristotle means when he says that the soul is in a sense all things, and when Chesterton compares the human mind to a mirror, which is small, yet can contain an entire room within it.

In God, not only is his conception of Himself the same nature as Himself, but his essence is also his existence, his goodness, etc. And since his concept of Himself is perfect, it is in complete union with his intellect with is his essence which is his goodness which is his etc.

So, God’s understanding of Himself is identical and in complete unity with Himself and his existence. Still, God’s Concept of God, the Logos, arises from God, making God conceiving Himself distinct from God as He conceives Himself, of course in a way that doesn’t make the Word a part of God.

I recommend reading my post above to Expatreprocedit for more information.

Christi pax.
 
Question for Plunia: What meaning do you give the Creed’s statement (following scripture) that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is seated at the right hand of the Father?

I’ll tell you the meaning I give it, as far as I am able even to approach thinking about it: even though the Father and the Son and the Spirit are all equally God, there is a certain order or priority between them. Being seated at the right hand of someone in Jesus’ culture connoted a position of honor and esteem. In order for someone to be “honored”, there must be one who bestows “honor” upon them, and there is a sense in which the one who bestows honor is prior to the one on whom he bestows it.
This is a perfect analogy! Once again, the Creed has shown itself to have an extreme and unexpected amount of depth and fertility expressed in a graceful and simply way 👍👍

Christi pax.
 
I never said that “the right hand of the Father” was a physical place. I said it indicates a certain order between the Father and the Son. Nothing in the linked articles contradicts that.
Actually I disagree. I read your post too fast earlier. The idea that Jesus sitting at the right hand of the Father “indicates a certain order between the Father and the Son” is absurd. The links I gave you from the Orthodox Church in America and Saint John of Damascus clearly state that this phrase refers to the exalted state of Christ’s human nature. It has nothing to do with the Divine Relations between the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
 
Actually I disagree. I read your post too fast earlier. The idea that Jesus sitting at the right hand of the Father “indicates a certain order between the Father and the Son” is absurd. The links I gave you from the Orthodox Church in America and Saint John of Damascus clearly state that this phrase refers to the exalted state of Christ’s human nature. It has nothing to do with the Divine Relations between the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
I don’t understand why the phrase can’t refer to both things. He’s correct that the Son receives his honor from the Father, like everything else that the Son has:

Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner.

For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son, so that all will honor the Son even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.

…For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself.

Christi pax.
 
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