J
justasking4
Guest
Tantum ergo;3707251]
Mary is not God and can’t hear the millions of people trying to pray to God through her.
Sorry, but where is it documented in Scripture that ONLY God can ‘hear’ in heaven?
It is well established in Scripture that all prayer is to be directed only to God. I Timothy 2:5 tells us that there is only mediator between God and man---- For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
A mediator is A mediator is one who mediates between two parties. As far as I can tell this is spoken of only of Christ and no else.
What do you mean by “those who pray ‘through’ another”? Do you mean the praying we do for each other in this world?If you read Revelation you see that not only are those who died in Christ alive, they are also cognizant of those who ‘live’ on earth. And where is it written that God does not hear the prayers of those who pray ‘through’ another? Quite the reverse.
Why can’t people accept the fact that God can very easily hear and answer all the prayers His children pray to Him?
We can and do.Where is just one prayer to Mary recorded in the Scriptures?Why can’t people accept the fact that Mary can’t hear the millions of people trying to pray to God through her? That is not a ‘fact’–it is your opinion and is not scripturally supported.
You are assuming that Mary is in your midst. Again the Scriptures never make such a claim about her or anyone else. Only when 2-3 are gathered in His name is He present and not Mary or some other spirit being. We see this in the passage you allude to—Why can’t people accept the fact that God hasn’t told His children in His written word to pray to Him through Mary? If you mean He hasn’t said, in 'King James English", “thou shalt pray to me through Mary”–you’re right. He also hasn’t said that ‘thou shalt’ pray to Him through the use of computer graphics, CDs, DVDs, or even the ‘printed’ word. . .but you don’t seem to have trouble using any of those. Nor has He said one CANNOT pray to Him through Mary or anybody else. He HAS, however, said repeatedly ‘where 2 or 3 gather in my name, there am I in their midst. Well tell me then, if those ‘2’ include me and the Blessed Virgin, then Jesus is RIGHT THERE IN OUR MIDST–unless you want to make Him a liar’–and if He is in our midst while we are offering the prayers of righteous men as St. James so aptly puts it, then what is your problem?
19 Again I say to you, that if two of you agree on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven.
20 For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst.”
Matthew 18
How about Ecclesiastes 9:10-- Whatever your hand finds to do, do it with all your might; for there is no activity or planning or knowledge or wisdom in Sheol where you are going.Where, oh WHERE is it written in Scripture, and believed and taught cohesively WITHOUT CONTRADICTION that ‘a dead person in Christ neither hears, sees, nor understands anything in heaven/’
Even the passages that are used in Revelations support the idea that someone is praying directly to these saints from earth.
What if the person you are praying to is in purgatory. Can they hear your prayers and do something about them?
.In fact, such was NEVER taught by Christians until 1600 years had gone by and people started cherry picking passages specifically to argue AGAINST CHRISTIAN TEACHING (meaning, PROTESTING Catholic teaching) which had taught from apostolic times (despite your contention) that those who had died were ‘aware’
This was the point of the reformation. The church for centuries had adopted practices that were never taught in the Scriptures and that’s why it was in desperate need of reform.
The catacombs only give us an idea what particular individuals may have believed and not what the entire church believed.Ever check out the catecombs?
Do you have the passage for this assertion?Read St. Paul who plainly asks for prayers for those who have died? Why, if the dead ‘can’t hear’ or benefit?