How is mary a virgin?

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Lisa4Catholics:
When Jesus was on the cross he looked at the Mary and said Woman behold your son(John).He calls her woman in reference to Genesis.You know the one satan would have emnity against:whistle: Honor thy mother and father pretty clear in the commandments.She is our Mother 🙂 Read Revelation starting at 12:1 Keep reading till you get it right.Or did you take that book out too?
More Roman Catholic eisegesis!!!
 
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doulos1:
So no admission that your assertion about Galileo was wrong? Interesting.
Galileo has nothing to do with infallibility oh your angryness.Infalibilty is in regards to faith and morals.😛
 
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Lisa4Catholics:
Really:) So you don’t really believe with God all things are possible?Interesting,so that is what Protestants teach:whistle:
No it is interesting what God teaches “The husband should not deprive his wife of sexual intimacy, which is her right as a married woman, nor should the wife deprive her husband. 4 The wife gives authority over her body to her husband, and the husband also gives authority over his body to his wife. 5 So do not deprive each other of sexual relations.” 1 Cor. 7: 3-5.

So again do I believe God or the Pope? hmmm, I chose God, again LOL.
 
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doulos1:
I never claimed that Paul was a pope, nor was Peter. What is interesting is the choice of Paul for celibacy was not a command of Paul for the leaders of the local church. Instead he said that they must be married. So Paul says they must be married and you awful popes prevent them from fulfilling the command of God through Paul. Because your popes are setting themselves against Christ. Or antichrist.
The Popes proclaim Christ,by the way Saint Peter is buried under the main alter at the Vatican.On Peter he did build his Church and the gates of hell or duolos will not prevail against it:rotfl: 😛
 
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doulos1:
Has it escaped your mind that the Bible no where says Joseph had a “first wife.” You can lay out conjecture all you want. The Scripture plainly teaches that:
Like I said above, has it escaped your mind that it does not say Mary had other children? Not everything is contained in the bible.
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doulos1:
  1. Mary and Joseph engaged in a marital relationship after the birth of Jesus. Matt. 1:25. No mention is made of other children of Joseph in Matt. 1 which as one of your members admit is the recollection of Joseph.
I have already answered this. The word until or till does not make any statement about what happened afterword. I could say, “he was thin until he died.” Does that mean he got fat after he died? It certainly does not. I also gave a link to a treatis by St. Jerome from the fourth century that speaks of this. He is a great source for this since he was a linguist.
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doulos1:
  1. That Jesus was Mary’s firstborn son, implying others afterword, (because there is a Greek word for only born son and the Holy Spirit did not use this word). Luke 2:7.
Again, this does not imply anything about the future and whether Mary had any other children. When the angel of death killed all the first born in each household, God did not say, “only those with two children have a first born.” No first born is just as relevant to a parent with only one child. I believe St. Jerome speaks of this also.
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doulos1:
  1. That other children are listed amongst Mary as Jesus brothers and sisters Mark 6:3. To list them as brothers and sisters of Jesus would be quite sufficiant to show them as children of Mary. It would have been quite awkard for them to say “His brothers…the children of Mary.” It would have made no sense.
The word brother was a very vague term at that time. It could refer to an uncle a cousin or even someone who was completely unrelated. Infact, Abraham called Lot his brother in genesis.

Those brothers you speak of; James, Joseph, Jude and Simon. They are the sons of one of the other Marys. Here is a verse from later in Mark in chapter 14 that mentions a couple of them.

40 And there were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalen, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joseph, and Salome:

If this was refering to Mary the mother of Jesus, then why would it refer to her as the mother of James and Joseph and not the mother of Jesus? Here is a verse from Acts of the Apostles.

13 And when they were come in, they went up into an upper room, where abode Peter and John, James and Andrew, Philip and Thomas, Bartholomew and Matthew, James of Alpheus, and Simon Zelotes, and Jude the brother of James. 14 All these were persevering with one mind in prayer with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren.

James and Jude were not the sons of Mary. Mary is not connected to them here at all.
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doulos1:
The normal, natural understanding of all these facts that these were children of Joseph and Mary after Jesus. If not why not simply:
Now I bring in again the Luke 1 thing. It is understood, and it has been for the entire history of Christianity that Mary made a vow of virginity before she was concieved. The fact that the early Christians believed this is proved by the fact that Augustine mentions it in his treatise on virginity. All of the early Christian Church taught that Mary was a perpetual virgin. The idea that she was not, is a post reformation idea and has no foundation in scripture or in history.
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doulos1:
  1. Omit the phrase “until she brought forth her firstborn son.” If the Holy Spirit had done this then there may have been room for your doctrine.
You have no support for your belief. You are grabbing at straws and looking for holes. You have gone into reading the scriptures with an idea of what you want to see before reading them.
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doulos1:
  1. Why not use the Greek word for only born son for Jesus instead of “firstborn.” If the Holy Spirit had used this word then the argument would have been settled, at least as it regards weather she had additional children.
I refer you to above.
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doulos1:
  1. Why not use the Greek word for cousin instead of brother and sister. Luke certainly knew this word, and as a Greek would have used this if he knew that they were cousins.
Why does Abraham refer to Lot as his brother?
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doulos1:
All the evidence taken together shows that God teaches Mary was not perpetually a virgin and that your church and your popes are in error.
All the evidence taken together shows that you are grasping at straws.
 
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doulos1:
Welcome to Roman Catholic fantasy island!! “de plane boss, the plane.!” Mary never made a vow of perpetual virginity that is a RC fantasy. LOL!
Read Luke 1 and think about it. Read Augustine and see what he is saying.

You protestants are not sola scriptura. If I could call you anything I would call you “sola meus” - only myself. You interpret scripture however you want. You have no authority, not even scripture itself.
 
The Holy Spirit prompts good acts. Grace enables us to conform our will to His will. When we will an act that conforms to the will of God the act is good in the measure the body is able to obey it freely irregardless of our tendency to will other acts that lack the good of the act prompted by the Holy Spirit.

Examples of personal acts are not necessary in order to teach this concept.
 
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doulos1:
More Roman Catholic eisegesis!!!
That is your problem doulos, the one way you are restricted in your interpretation of the bible is that you think anything ROMAN Catholic is wrong and evil and heresy. You throw out doctrines because they are associated with the Catholic Church. Your theology is less than 400 years old yet you condemn the Church that Christ founded 2000 years ago.
 
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doulos1:
Without taint of sin? What have you done this week without taint of sin? I would be interested to know.
first let me say interest in me personally puts in question your motivations considering the context of our relationship.

The Holy Spirit prompts good acts. Grace enables us to conform our will to His will. When we will an act that conforms to the will of God the act is good in the measure the body is able to obey it freely irregardless of our tendency to will other acts that lack the good of the act prompted by the Holy Spirit.

Examples of personal acts are not necessary in order to teach this concept.
 
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jimmy:
That is your problem doulos, the one way you are restricted in your interpretation of the bible is that you think anything ROMAN Catholic is wrong and evil and heresy. You throw out doctrines because they are associated with the Catholic Church. Your theology is less than 400 years old yet you condemn the Church that Christ founded 2000 years ago.
Considerably less than 400 years – in fact, it isn’t until quite recently that some Protestants decided to go against the early Protestants on this.

This kind of argument is what I call “Garage Sale Theology” – the people who make it treat the Bible as if it were just discovered (bought at a garage sale) and trumpet all sorts of “new” ideas, without the slightest inkling of how they are repeating old heresies refuted long ago.

"Those who do not remember history are condemed to look foolish in public."http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon10.gif

– Uncle Herbivore.
 
vern humphrey:
Considerably less than 400 years – in fact, it isn’t until quite recently that some Protestants decided to go against the early Protestants on this.

This kind of argument is what I call “Garage Sale Theology” – the people who make it treat the Bible as if it were just discovered (bought at a garage sale) and trumpet all sorts of “new” ideas, without the slightest inkling of how they are repeating old heresies refuted long ago.

"Those who do not remember history are condemed to look foolish in public."http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon10.gif

– Uncle Herbivore.
Yes, it probably is more recent than that but I was unsure of what kind of protestant he is so I left it like that.

It is amazing that most protestants are nestorians in nature. And follow helvidius and all the old heretics.:yup:
 
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doulos1:
His sisters are not named, but his brother are in Mark 6:3 “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.”
Then please explain why these same “brothers” have other parents named in the Scripture. The parents of these four are Alphaeus (Clopas) and the other Mary, who is named by St. John the Evangelist as the other Mary.

Since James the Less is named in the Scripture as being the son of the other Mary, you do not have a case for claiming that these four, who were older than Jesus are the sons of Mary, the Perpetual virgin.

Now, take another look at Mark 6:3, and I see an inconsistency in the argument that you are making. Your quote says (just as my Bible says) that Jesus is **the **son of Mary. Now that **the **is singular, and that means the intention of the author is to show that Mary had only one son.

So again, please give me the names of the “brethren” who are named as sons of Mary. The quote that you gave does not in fact say that these four are sons of Mary for they are not identified that way in this particular Scripture quote. They are identified as separate family members.

You have failed to prove your case by giving a Scripture verse that does not answer my question.

MaggieOH
 
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doulos1:
I never claimed that Paul was a pope, nor was Peter. What is interesting is the choice of Paul for celibacy was not a command of Paul for the leaders of the local church. Instead he said that they must be married. So Paul says they must be married and you awful popes prevent them from fulfilling the command of God through Paul. Because your popes are setting themselves against Christ. Or antichrist.
Errors galore in these statements. Who wants to keep a running count of the errors and the diversionary tactics as doufos tries hard to divert attention away from the purpose of the thread.
  1. the issue of Paul’s celibacy has nothing to do with the subject of Mary who is the Mother of God, and remained in a holy state all of her life.
  2. Paul was speaking about candidates for being bishops in his letters, thus he was referring to the leaders of the newly established church, and not about those who were also being ordained as ministerial servants of the Lord.
  3. The issue of those men who became Bishop of Rome through means that were not properly sanctioned has nothing to do with this thread, and has not been substantiated by all of the facts. We do not deny their existence, since their behaviour is the reason that priestly celibacy is a recommended discipline.
Now let’s keep the thread on track and stop the diversionary tactics or you will be reported to the moderators for disciplinary action.

MaggieOH
 
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jimmy:
Like I said above, has it escaped your mind that it does not say Mary had other children? Not everything is contained in the bible.

I have already answered this. The word until or till does not make any statement about what happened afterword. I could say, “he was thin until he died.” Does that mean he got fat after he died? It certainly does not. I also gave a link to a treatis by St. Jerome from the fourth century that speaks of this. He is a great source for this since he was a linguist.

Again, this does not imply anything about the future and whether Mary had any other children. When the angel of death killed all the first born in each household, God did not say, “only those with two children have a first born.” No first born is just as relevant to a parent with only one child. I believe St. Jerome speaks of this also.

The word brother was a very vague term at that time. It could refer to an uncle a cousin or even someone who was completely unrelated. Infact, Abraham called Lot his brother in genesis.

Those brothers you speak of; James, Joseph, Jude and Simon. They are the sons of one of the other Marys. Here is a verse from later in Mark in chapter 14 that mentions a couple of them.

40 And there were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalen, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joseph, and Salome:

If this was refering to Mary the mother of Jesus, then why would it refer to her as the mother of James and Joseph and not the mother of Jesus? Here is a verse from Acts of the Apostles.

13 And when they were come in, they went up into an upper room, where abode Peter and John, James and Andrew, Philip and Thomas, Bartholomew and Matthew, James of Alpheus, and Simon Zelotes, and Jude the brother of James. 14 All these were persevering with one mind in prayer with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren.

James and Jude were not the sons of Mary. Mary is not connected to them here at all.

Now I bring in again the Luke 1 thing. It is understood, and it has been for the entire history of Christianity that Mary made a vow of virginity before she was concieved. The fact that the early Christians believed this is proved by the fact that Augustine mentions it in his treatise on virginity. All of the early Christian Church taught that Mary was a perpetual virgin. The idea that she was not, is a post reformation idea and has no foundation in scripture or in history.

You have no support for your belief. You are grabbing at straws and looking for holes. You have gone into reading the scriptures with an idea of what you want to see before reading them.

I refer you to above.

Why does Abraham refer to Lot as his brother?

All the evidence taken together shows that you are grasping at straws.
:amen:
 
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doulos1:
No it is interesting what God teaches “The husband should not deprive his wife of sexual intimacy, which is her right as a married woman, nor should the wife deprive her husband. 4 The wife gives authority over her body to her husband, and the husband also gives authority over his body to his wife. 5 So do not deprive each other of sexual relations.” 1 Cor. 7: 3-5.

So again do I believe God or the Pope? hmmm, I chose God, again LOL.
This is an instruction that St. Paul gave, not “God”.

Maybe this is one of those who worship the Bible and claim everything written was said by God…

I am not saying that the Scripture is not inspired, what I am saying is that God inspired what these men wrote and that means that this is an instruction of a man, not God.

Maggie
 
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