I believe Paul C is questioning if you believe God is the author of evil.
No. I believe that God only allowed our evil into His creation to reveal His glory to us more clearly. For example, without evil, we humans would not have the ability to fully comprehend God’s goodness. If there is no injustice, then we can’t comprehend His perfect justice. If there is no condemnation, then we can’t comprehend His wonderful mercy, etc.
One of God’s divine attributes is that He is good seeming from His perfection. He cannot be both good and evil. God’s attributes cannot be separated since that would be a limitation and a limitation would mean that he is finite. Since God’s attributes cannot be separated, His justice is His Mercy. He’s both Judge and Savior.
If you are saying that there is no conflict between His justice and His mercy, then I agree.
I’m sure that God foreknew but did He predetermine it?
God not only foreknew that we would fall into sin, it was His intention to use our evil for His own glory. If God had wanted, He could have created creatures resembling human beings…incorruptible creatures who never could and thus never would sin. But God wanted to create human beings instead of incorruptible creatures that resemble human beings.
Then why does He only save the elect since He is all powerful?
This passage from Rom. 9 might shed some light on your question:
One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who resists his will?” But who are you, O man, to talk back to God? "Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’ " Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use?
What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction? What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory— even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?
Scripture tells us He desires all men to be saved.
It is true that God, who is merciful, doesn’t take any delight in the fact that most people will spend eternity in horrible suffering, but God also desires to demonstrate His perfect justice. I see no conflict between these two desires.
God is indeed all powerful and in His sovereignty, He gave men free will. You’ve agreed that God doesn’t want to force men to love Him, that omission suggests some free will on man’s part is involved.
True. Adam and Eve truly had free will before the fall. They were created with free will but they lost it in the very first sin. All of their offspring are born in a state of hostility toward God. There is no neutral attitude toward God. Every individual is either for Him or against Him. We are born into sinful rebellion against God. The Pelagian view is a denial of the universal falleness of mankind. I love God, not because He forced me to love Him, but because He supernaturally–through regeneration of the Spirit, caused me to want what is truly good (God).
Catholics believe in original sin (not total depravity), meaning that mankind has a tendency towards evil. Mankind never lost his free will, which God created by His sovereignty in our first parents.
The only thing that is “free” about our (post fall) will, is that we have the ability to choose in accordance with our desires. But that is not good news if we no longer desire (want or will) that which is truly good. If fallen mankind is born into rebellion and hostility toward God, then how can it be consistent to say that our will (our wants, our desires), are still free? No, we are born into slavery to our own sinful desires–the desires of the flesh.
The Book of Romans tell us that each person has God’s laws written in his heart.
True. And thus we sin without excuse, for we KNOW that we do evil when we break His laws.
Also, one of the effects of actual grace (the grace that precedes conversion or repentance) is the desire to do good.
I see it differently. I don’t think that God ever gives grace that is to no avail. The grace of regeneration always accomplishes the purpose for which it is given–a changed and regenerated soul that wants what is truly good (God).
I asked this before: God created Adam and Eve with a free will and He is sovereign. Did fallen Adam “unmake” God’s creation by removing his own free will?
No, Adam and Eve didn’t fully comprehend the loss of freedom. The concept of being in slavery to their own flesh was not really comprehensible to them before they ate the fruit. They had no experience with losing freedom, so they couldn’t comprehend what that loss would be like. No frame of reference existed by which to understand it.
I’m curious about what is the proof that a conversion experience is of divine origin.
There are good evidences that conversion is genuine, but we can have no proof. Only God has certainty. We must live by faith. The best evidence for genuine conversion is the kinds of changes in one’s life that follow genuine conversion.