Mt. 1:25 No Relations Until She Bore a Son?

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Since Cachonga has withdrawn from the thread, this is mainly for interested third parties reading now and in the future.
You misunderstand me. We know that not everything was written down. However, my position is that, since God is the author of Scripture, we can know that what IS written down IS sufficient (see 2 Tim 3:16).
2 Timothy 3:16-17 has to be the most abused passage in the New Testament. If Paul were really teaching the doctrine of Scripture alone here, this learned writer, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, would have contradicted himself elsewhere: in Ephesians 4:4-8,11-16 and 1 Timothy 3:15 (on the latter, see “Biblical Proof of Church Infallibility and Disproof of Sola Scriptura in One Bible Verse”).
As far as the ECF’s, you mentioned Irenaeus. I showed in another thread (or maybe a PM) that he believed that Jesus was about 50 years old when He was crucified, and that this was taught by John and other Apostles (Against Heresies, Book II, Chapter XXII). The problem with ECF’s is that they can make mistakes (as Irenaeus proves).
Irenaeus didn’t believe this. Mark Bonocore explains here.
In regard to “written-only teaching”, did Jesus overcome Satan in the wilderness with tradition or the written word?
It was rhetorically most appropriate for Jesus to rebut Satan with Scripture: the Devil was employing it against Christ first.
Did Jesus prove that the Corban rule was a tradition of men by quoting another tradition, or by comparing it to the written word?
If Jesus meant to teach Scripture alone as the remedy to Jewish “traditions of men”, isn’t he contradicting himself in Matthew 23?

[1] Then said Jesus to the crowds and to his disciples,
[2] “The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat;
[3] so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice.”

Mark Bonocore and Art Sippo look at this issue here.
Did Phillip convince the Ethiopian eunuch with tradition or by the scriptures? Did the Bereans test the teachings of Paul against tradition, or the written word? The written word doesn’t change!
These examples actually disprove Scripture alone. Note this portion of the account in Acts 8:

[30] So Philip ran to him, and heard him reading Isaiah the prophet, and asked, “Do you understand what you are reading?”
[31] And he said, “How can I, unless some one guides me?” And he invited Philip to come up and sit with him.

Without the intervention of Philip, the Ethiopian eunuch would have never figured out based on Scripture alone that Isaiah was (1) discussing anything relevant to his own life or (2) making prophecies that had finally been fulfilled.

As for Acts 17, if these Bereans had relied on their interpretation of Scripture alone, perhaps none would have been converted. “Novel traditions of men!” these `Protestants’ would cry. “You contradict the Word of God here, there, and everywhere.” The case of the Thessalonians is instructive.
Can you say the same for your “traditions”? I find many of your “traditions” that contradict Scripture (just as Jesus did with the Corban rule). Tradition is good and useful, but when it conflicts or contradicts Scripture, it should be considered a tradition of men!
Would you condone the addition of a book to the New Testament? If not, you have one tradition of men to dispense with, i.e., the New Testament must contain only the twenty-seven books of today. Nowhere within its pages does the New Testament outline the current canon.
You missed my point. The tradition Paul was referring to was the Gospel. What part of the Gospel of Jesus Christ speaks of Mary’s perpetual virginity or immaculate conception (I’m trying to stay on topic, but there are many other dogmas that could be included in this question).
The body of tradition which Paul was discussing was more expansive than you make out:

[13] But we are bound to give thanks to God always for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth.
[14] To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.
[15] So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter.

For the Apostle to the Gentiles, “be[ing] saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth” is just as important as the gospel, strictly defined. If the perpetual virginity of Mary is part of “the truth”, the audience is obliged to accept it in order to “be saved” as readily as the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ, whether or not this doctrine is “taught… by word of mouth or by letter”.
 
As usual I am late to the party, but I just wanted to address the following.
…We have the official Catechism of the Catholic Church to guide us. For my Catholic sisters and brothers, refer to section 499. It is very specific in the last sentence. "And so the liturgy of the Church celebrates Mary as Aeiparthenos, the “Ever-virgin.”

I researched this in the Catechism because I too was troubled by verse 25 in as much as I would like to be an effective apologist for the Church.…

Of course, I began by reviewing Mt 1:25 and the notes in the New American Bible. The New American Bible is an approved Bible of the Catholic Church and, in fact, was translated from original scriptures by a large group of Catholic scholars. It has the Nihil Obstat as well as the Imprimatur and was approved by the USCCB on September 30, 2010. What I read caused me concern.

In Mathew Chapter 1, which describes the birth of Jesus, verse 25 in the New American Bible reads “He had no relations with her (Mary) until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus.” It references a foot note that reads “[1:25] Until she bore a son: The evangelist is concerned to emphasize that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of Jesus. *The Greek word translated as “until” does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus’ birth, nor does it exclude it.” *(Italics are mine).

The note was ambiguous so I referenced the Catechism. The Catechism underscores the fact that Mary conceived and gave birth to Jesus as a virgin and even cites Mathew 1:18-25 (see Section 497]). It doesn’t address Mt. 1:25 specifically though or the idea of Mary remaining a virgin after Jesus’ birth. However, **section 499 ** is very specific in the last sentence. "And so the liturgy of the Church celebrates Mary as Aeiparthenos, the “Ever-virgin.”
…What are your thoughts about the ambiguous footnote in our Bible versus the very clear and definitive statement in our Catechism?
My thoughts are the NAB notes are not to be relied upon and this is a perfect example of why not. Instead of taking this opportunity to definitively teach what the Church proclaims on this matter, this note deliberately interjects wording that might possibly foster confusion for a reader (as it did for Mike) regarding the doctrine of Mary’s perpetual virginity. Is the note technically incorrect? No. Is it Catholic? Not in my eyes.

As far as the Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur go, the following note (found for example on the title page of the NAB-Basic Youth Edition) is instructive:
The nihil obstat and imprimatur are declarations that a book or pamphlet is free of doctrinal or moral error. No implication is contained therein that those who have granted the nihil obstat or imprimatur agree with the contents, opinions or statements expressed.

In other words, in this case, you do not find the NAB notes saying the the Blessed Mother is NOT a Perpetual Virgin. You just find the door left open in the notes. Thankfully, Mike made the wise decision to go to the CCC for an answer to his question.
 
I have a question that’s bothering me after reading this thread. Why would Mary allow herself to be called “Our Lady of Fatima” when Muhammed’s beloved daughter was named Fatima and denied Jesus was the Son of God?
 
I have a question that’s bothering me after reading this thread. Why would Mary allow herself to be called “Our Lady of Fatima” when Muhammed’s beloved daughter was named Fatima and denied Jesus was the Son of God?
Because Fatima is the name of the town where the apparition occurred. It has nothing to do with Mohammed’s daughter. The town was named by the Moors who invaded the Iberian peninsula in the 1400’s. The town is actually named after a Moorish princess and not the daughter of Mohammed.
 
What would of been the problem if they did have sex after Jesus was born? What would of been the problem if they really did have more children. Why is it an issue? Would it change your mind on Jesus or Mary if she did have sex with her husband after Jesus was born? I don’t see the problem. They were married, so they had every right to have sexual relations.
 
What would of been the problem if they did have sex after Jesus was born? What would of been the problem if they really did have more children. Why is it an issue? Would it change your mind on Jesus or Mary if she did have sex with her husband after Jesus was born? I don’t see the problem. They were married, so they had every right to have sexual relations.
Please take a look at this article. 🙂
 
Because Fatima is the name of the town where the apparition occurred. It has nothing to do with Mohammed’s daughter. The town was named by the Moors who invaded the Iberian peninsula in the 1400’s. The town is actually named after a Moorish princess and not the daughter of Mohammed.
A quick search says the town was named after a princess who was named after Mohammeds daughter, so yes, it was named after Muslim Fatima. So yes, my Catholic church has the same name as Islam’s favorite daughter. Hmmm. I never knew this.
 
agapebiblestudy.com/charts/The%20James%20of%20the%20New%20Testament.htm
This particular link deals with the argument that there were only two James in the NT instead of at least three.
Paul identifies the James that he calls, “brother of the Lord” as an Apostle. That narrows the list down to two and neither one of them was fathered by Joseph. That means, along with the other evidence I listed in my prior post that the word adelphos that Paul uses as meaning ‘brother’ cannot be interpreted as meaning strictly a sibling brother. If you do then you introduce error into the scripture and that is a NO NO for any christian.
 
Please take a look at this article. 🙂
Bless you for linking this. Brother Anthony Opisso was a Filipino immigrant who became a medical doctor (started out in in North Dakota), practiced in a couple of states for a few years, then dropped out to become a hermit brother in New Brunswick, I think. He loved the Jewish tradition, and was quite the scholar as I understand. He died a few years ago. A very bright and humble man, according to a retired priest friend of mine who knew him.

But back to the subject at hand, I find it a bit amusing, mostly because it demonstrates how it takes time for the reality of the events described in Bible to really sink in. I mean, after Mary has a real-life encounter with the archangel Gabriel, and she is told she will conceive and bear the Son of God, and Joseph has not one, but two, vivid dreams clearly sent from God himself, we are supposed to believe that, after the Son of God is born, Joseph and Mary decide to start an average married life.

Umm … maybe it’s just me, but if I had received anywhere NEAR this kind of personal revelation, though I may not understand what it meant, I would be very, very conscious not to cause the slightest hint of corruption to those central to the revelation.
 
Paul identifies the James that he calls, “brother of the Lord” as an Apostle. That narrows the list down to two and neither one of them was fathered by Joseph. That means, along with the other evidence I listed in my prior post that the word adelphos that Paul uses as meaning ‘brother’ cannot be interpreted as meaning strictly a sibling brother. If you do then you introduce error into the scripture and that is a NO NO for any christian.
Where does Paul identify James as an Apostle? I am not aware of this.

I would place James, the brother of the Lord, outside of the Twelve (including matthias ;)), but I know there is not a consensus either way.
 
Where does Paul identify James as an Apostle? I am not aware of this.

I would place James, the brother of the Lord, outside of the Twelve (including matthias ;)), but I know there is not a consensus either way.
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.
 
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.
I think you are mistaken here. Paul calls Barnabas and apostle, doesn’t he?

I would think the rendering of the verse would be, “But I saw none of the other of the Twelve except James the Lord’s brother.”

The NAB doesn’t feel that this James is one of the two James of the Twelve. I’ll check some other commentaries tonight.
 
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.
The Ignatius Study Bible says, "Tradition reveres James as the first bishop of Jerusalem, being appointed to this position by the Apostles. Early Christians called him “The Just” on account of his disciplined, prayerful, and virtuous life (Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 2,23; St. Jerome, On Illustrious Men 2)
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by inkaneer
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.
I think you are mistaken here. Paul calls Barnabas and apostle, doesn’t he?
No he doesn’t Luke refers to Paul and Barnabas as apostles in Acts but Paul never calls Barnabas an apostle. In fact Paul mentions Barnabas in his epistles only five times and the only one Paul calls an Apostle by name is … Paul. He does so about 18 times
I would think the rendering of the verse would be, “But I saw none of the other of the Twelve except James the Lord’s brother.”

The NAB doesn’t feel that this James is one of the two James of the Twelve. I’ll check some other commentaries tonight.
Well let’s not criticize the Holy Spirit’s use of words. The fact remains Paul is linking the James he saw in Jerusalem along with Peter as Apostles. So here is how it fits. We know that Peter was the presiding bishop in Jerusalem before going to Antioch, then Rome. The apostle James becomes the bishop and presides over the council held in Jerusalem. This James is the son of Alpheas who is also known as Cleophas [Clopas]. This Alpheas/Cleophas is the brother of Joseph which makes James the cousin of Jesus. That is why Paul calls him a brother. As I pointed out before the Greek word adelphos cannot be interpreted as a sibling brother for it is used to denote different relationships and not all of them are along family lines. For instance, Jesus calls the apostles His brothers adelphoi] but we know they are not.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by inkaneer
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.
The Ignatius Study Bible says, "Tradition reveres James as the first bishop of Jerusalem, being appointed to this position by the Apostles. Early Christians called him “The Just” on account of his disciplined, prayerful, and virtuous life (Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 2,23; St. Jerome, On Illustrious Men 2)
The CatholicEncyclopedia says this:

“James is without doubt the Bishop of Jerusalem (Acts 12:17, 15:13, 21:18; Galatians 1:19; 2:9-12) and the author of the first Catholic Epistle. His identity with James the Less (Mark 15:40) and the Apostle James, the son of Alpheus (Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18), although contested by many Protestant critics, may also be considered as certain. There is no reasonable doubt that in Galatians 1:19: “But other of the apostles [besides Cephas] I saw none, saving James the brother of the Lord”, St. Paul represents James as a member of the Apostolic college. The purpose for which the statement is made, makes it clear that the “apostles” is to be taken strictly to designate the Twelve, and its truthfulness demands that the clause “saving James” be understood to mean, that in addition to Cephas, St. Paul saw another Apostle, “James the brother of the Lord” (cf. Acts 9:27). Besides, the prominence and authority of James among the Apostles (Acts 15:13; Galatians 2:9; in the latter text he is even named before Cephas) could have belonged only to one of their number. Now there were only two Apostles named James: James the son of Zebedee, and James the son of Alpheus (Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:16; Acts 1:13). The former is out of the question, since he was dead at the time of the events to which Acts 15:6 ssq., and Galatians 2:9-12 refer (cf. Acts 12:2). James “the brother of the Lord” is therefore one with James the son of Alpheus, and consequently with James the Less, the identity of these two being generally conceded. Again, on comparing John 19:25 with Matthew 27:56, and Mark 15:40 (cf. Mark 15:47; 16:1), we find that Mary of Cleophas, or more correctly Clopas (Klopas), the sister of Mary the Mother of Christ, is the same as Mary the mother of James the Less and of Joseph, or Joses. As married women are not distinguished by the addition of their father’s name, Mary of Clopas must be the wife of Clopas, and not his daughter, as has been maintained. Moreover, the names of her sons and the order in which they are given, no doubt the order of seniority, warrant us in identifying these sons with James and Joseph, or Joses, the “brethren” of the Lord. The existence among the early followers of Christ of two sets of brothers having the same names in the order of age, is not likely, and cannot be assumed without proof. Once this identity is conceded, the conclusion cannot well be avoided that Clopas and Alpheus are one person, even if the two names are quite distinct. It is, however, highly probable, and commonly admitted, that Clopas and Alpheus are merely different transcriptions of the same Aramaic word Halphai. James and Joseph the “brethren” of the Lord are thus the sons of Alpheus.”

Notice the part I emboldened.
 
Well let’s not criticize the Holy Spirit’s use of words. The fact remains Paul is linking the James he saw in Jerusalem along with Peter as Apostles. **So here is how it fits. We know that **… The apostle James becomes the bishop and presides over the council held in Jerusalem. This James is the son of Alpheas who is also known as Cleophas [Clopas]. This Alpheas/Cleophas is the brother of Joseph which makes James the cousin of Jesus. That is why Paul calls him a brother. As I pointed out before the Greek word adelphos cannot be interpreted as a sibling brother for it is used to denote different relationships and not all of them are along family lines. For instance, Jesus calls the apostles His brothers adelphoi] but we know they are not.
But see, Ink, we don’t know that! I’ve shown you where several commentaries do not know that James, the bishop of Jerusalem, is the Apostle James (the Lesser). They claim that this James is a different James then either of the two Apostles named James.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by inkaneer
In Galatians 1:19 Paul writes: “But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother.” [RSV]

According to Matthew 10 there were only two Apostles named James. One was the son of Zebedee and the apostle John’s brother and the other was the son of Alpheus. Neither was the son of Joseph.

The CatholicEncyclopedia says this:

“James is without doubt the Bishop of Jerusalem (Acts 12:17, 15:13, 21:18; Galatians 1:19; 2:9-12) and the author of the first Catholic Epistle. His identity with James the Less (Mark 15:40) and the Apostle James, the son of Alpheus (Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18), although contested by many Protestant critics, may also be considered as certain. There is no reasonable doubt that in Galatians 1:19: “But other of the apostles [besides Cephas] I saw none, saving James the brother of the Lord”, St. Paul represents James as a member of the Apostolic college. The purpose for which the statement is made, makes it clear that the “apostles” is to be taken strictly to designate the Twelve, and its truthfulness demands that the clause “saving James” be understood to mean, that in addition to Cephas, St. Paul saw another Apostle, “James the brother of the Lord” (cf. Acts 9:27). Besides, the prominence and authority of James among the Apostles (Acts 15:13; Galatians 2:9; in the latter text he is even named before Cephas) could have belonged only to one of their number. Now there were only two Apostles named James: James the son of Zebedee, and James the son of Alpheus (Matthew 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:16; Acts 1:13). The former is out of the question, since he was dead at the time of the events to which Acts 15:6 ssq., and Galatians 2:9-12 refer (cf. Acts 12:2). James “the brother of the Lord” is therefore one with James the son of Alpheus, and consequently with James the Less, the identity of these two being generally conceded. Again, on comparing John 19:25 with Matthew 27:56, and Mark 15:40 (cf. Mark 15:47; 16:1), we find that Mary of Cleophas, or more correctly Clopas (Klopas), the sister of Mary the Mother of Christ, is the same as Mary the mother of James the Less and of Joseph, or Joses. As married women are not distinguished by the addition of their father’s name, Mary of Clopas must be the wife of Clopas, and not his daughter, as has been maintained. Moreover, the names of her sons and the order in which they are given, no doubt the order of seniority, warrant us in identifying these sons with James and Joseph, or Joses, the “brethren” of the Lord. The existence among the early followers of Christ of two sets of brothers having the same names in the order of age, is not likely, and cannot be assumed without proof. Once this identity is conceded, the conclusion cannot well be avoided that Clopas and Alpheus are one person, even if the two names are quite distinct. It is, however, highly probable, and commonly admitted, that Clopas and Alpheus are merely different transcriptions of the same Aramaic word Halphai. James and Joseph the “brethren” of the Lord are thus the sons of Alpheus.”

Notice the part I emboldened.
I find it odd that the Catholic Encyclopedia says “without a doubt” and blames any opposition to Protestant history re-writers, because that is simply not the case.

Early Church Tradition cites this James, the bishop of Jerusalem, as NOT the Apostle James, son of Alpheus. The Navarre Bible and the Ignatius Study Bible, both hardly considered to be influenced by Protestant Critics, both agree that this is not the James, son of Alpheus.

Notice that I didn’t include the NAB even though it agreed with Navarre and Ignatius. I couldn’t, in clear conscience, claim that the NAB is not influenced by Protestant Critics.:confused:

I’ve seen much back and forth on who James the Bishop really is, and I think the Church theologians are rather split on the topic… as well as many of the Church Fathers. Personally, I found the evidence on the side of James not being an Apostle is stronger, but that’s my opinion. AgapeBibleStudy.Com, which is very traditional in their teaching, covers it expansively in the introduction to their study of the Epistle of James. The thinking is that James was probably a Jewish Pharisee, which would explain why the Judaizers sent by James were also so stuck in their Jewish ways. He was very instrumental in converting many of the Jewish priests and Pharisees.

If you wish to continue in this vein, we can, but I’d rather just agree to disagree.
 
I find it odd that the Catholic Encyclopedia says “without a doubt” and blames any opposition to Protestant history re-writers, because that is simply not the case.
Well maybe the context of the verse in Paul’s epistle gives meaning to their position. Start with verse 15. I have emboldened the part

“15 But when he who had set me apart before I was born, and had called me through his grace, 16 was pleased to reveal his Son to me, in order that I might preach him among the Gentiles, **I did not confer with flesh and blood, 17 nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me, but I went away into Arabia; and again I returned to Damascus. 18 Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas, and remained with him fifteen days. 19 But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lord’s brother. **” [Galatians 1:15-19]

Paul says he met with Peter and stayed with him [Peter] for 15 days. Then Paul says he did not see any other apostle except James. The obvious context is that this group of Apostles is one in which both Peter and Jaes are members and that would be the original eleven.
Early Church Tradition cites this James, the bishop of Jerusalem, as NOT the Apostle James, son of Alpheus. The Navarre Bible and the Ignatius Study Bible, both hardly considered to be influenced by Protestant Critics, both agree that this is not the James, son of Alpheus.
Which of the early church writers say this? What is your source? I find it odd that the Catholic Encyclopedia makes no mention of this “Early Church Tradition”. Paul does not throw the word ‘apostle’ around willy nilly. He calls himself an Apostle 18 times in his writings. He insists that He is an Apostle equal to the other eleven in his teaching but inferior to them because he persecuted the church. According to the Haydock Commentary the Galatians question his apostleship and thus he writes them that He did not receive his apostleship from mere man but from Jesus Christ [See verses 11,12]. Also Paul says his instruction came from Christ and not from any man nor did he consult with the other apostles and it was only after three years had gone by that He went to see Peter and at that time he did not see any other apostles except James, the brother of the Lord. The Context of this speaks volumes that James was an apostle with Peter. But, if you got evidence from the early church that the Catholic Encyclopedia does not, I would like to see it.
 
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