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Elizabeth3
Guest
According to you, consent is what makes a behavior moral. But that changes with children because they are too young to understand what sex actually is. So in this case, it’s not consent but an inability to understand what sex actually is that would make it immoral. What if a child’s parents freely and openly talked to them about sex from the time they were young and they understand what their parents taught them? Could they at age 9 or 10 consent because they understand better than their peers due to the upbringing they had? Don’t you think the morality of a behavior should be based on something more objective than “because I want to do it” or an individual persons perceived understanding of the behavior they are engaging in? Can understanding be skewed with misinformation?A child cannot consent because they don’t understand the concept of consent or sex. Do not take this to mean that a young person cannot understand that they aren’t the same as others, but they’re still too young to understand what sex actually is.
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