You are also correct, he was talking to both Jews and Gentiles, but he wasn’t addressing any Gentile law. There wasn’t any Gentile law from God
“for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness”
He included the Gentiles because the Judiazers wanted the Gentiles to be circumcized and follow the Mosaic law. He is saying that the OT law does not save and that there is no reason for Jew or Gentile Christian to be circumcized.
Yes, some books and verses combat this, but Romans was was written well after that controversy was settled at Jerusalem council. If Paul really wanted to address this again you would think he would mention and use the council’s ruling with all it’s weight and authority.
Never the less, the context dictates a bigger scope of “law/ deeds” beyond Jewish. Notice that would include circumcision but much more, else how could God condemn the “whole world” if only a tiny portion (Israel) had the law?
“Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.”
“For we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under the power of sin.”( no law, no sin…gentiles had law of conscience )
So agree, no Jewish work needed for Salvation, just not sure why you would deny any “gentile” work also. I mean “blessed is the man who is forgiven, imputed with righteousness, without works”, but by “law of faith”…
Yes, the example is circumcision, yet it is used to represent any law or deed that would nullify grace, and law of faith, or that would have God imputing righteousness “out of debt”.