crochet lady;11491832]Fatherknowsbest #33
You asked 'why not try to emulate Mary as well as Christ"? We have a Perfect example in Jesus Christ to emulate – All others are totally human and are prone to sinfulness. And Mary Was the earthly mother of Jesus – the mother of His human nature only.
What is sin? Sin is turning away from God (and/or otherwise offending Him). Through our thoughts, words, or actions, turning away from, or offending, God.
So by your reckoning, God just chose a useful sinner–someone contaminated with the thoughts, words or actions of turning away from and/or offending God–in which to harbor His only begotten Son.
What a feeble view you must necessarily harbor of God the Father.
Being conceived of the Holy Spirit , Jesus the human baby / being born as a ‘human’ baby allowed Him to be born with human desires – just like Us. In other words – Jesus the Christ Child – was Both God in the flesh – the 2nd part of the Godhead And part ‘us’. Because He was part ‘us’ , He was able to experience all the temptations that We experience. He experienced all the same emotions as we do. But – He also had the strength to Not give in to any of those temptations – He used God’s Word to defeat the temptations that Satan gave to Him. And We can do the same – use God’s Word to defeat Satan’s temptations to us.
By your account, God the Father permitted His Holy Spirit, to commingle with one contaminated with/by sin; one who turned away from, and/or offended Him, at the time of this commingling–tainted by the stain of not just original sin, but sin itself.
What a feeble view you must necessarily harbor of God the Father, and His Holy Spirit.
How could Mary be the Mother of God – because 'In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth … mankind included. Mary Was the ‘tool’ that God used to deliver Jesus His Son into the world as a Baby.
By your account, God the Father didn’t create Mary to be the mother of His only begotten Son; He merely chose a decent person; a useful sinner–someone contaminated with the thoughts, words or actions of turning away from God–
A MERE TOOL–in which to harbor His only begotten Son, His WORD. He merely
chose a useful ‘tool’, contaminated with and by not just original sin, but sin itself.
But, for harboring His
written word–the Ten Commandments on stone tablets–He required immaculate perfection in the construction of the Ark of the Covenant, and required that it not be touched–even on the outside–by anyone contaminated with sin–yet, for harboring His Word Incarnate…just some decent to good person, contaminated with sin–again, not just original sin, but sin itself–that was good enough for His Son, His Word,
INCARNATE.
What a feeble view you must necessarily harbor of God the Father, His Holy Spirit, and His only begotten Son, His Word Incarnate..
A comment was made earlier about the Church knowing who the saints are? What is the term “Church” referring To?
“Church” refers to that
body of believers founded by Christ, to whom He expressly entrusted the Faith, and to whom He expressly and exclusively delegated His authority–the same body of believers that preserved His Word infallibly for 15 centuries before the
prophet Martin Luther, and his disciples, determined that Christ’s legacy was flawed, and that they were perfectly suited to improve upon His legacy (notwithstanding having ZERO authority
vis a vis divine revelation, intervention, or otherwise–feel free to attempt to correct me on this point, if you think you can (hint: you cannot))–and btw, the same body which continues to preserve it to this day–along with the rest of the totality of the Deposit of Faith (i.e.–not just scripture).
And Where is ‘purgatory’ located?
With all due respect, this is embarrassingly childish. Where is Heaven? Where I Hell? Where is ‘the right hand of the Father’?
…what is most ironic, is that you volunteer this retort, perhaps thinking it clever–mockingly–yet the basis cited by many of the
Reformers for denying the Real Presence, was that 'Christ couldn’t be in the Eucharist…because he is seated at ‘t
he right hand of the Father.’
…and so to reciprocate–just to make a point–where exactly, is the right hand of the Father, that God, by and through His second person, can not in the Eucharist?
Does that not deny the omnipresence (to say nothing of His omnipotence, and omniscience) of the Lord???
Again, what a feeble view you must necessarily harbor of God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit, that you would dare pretend to project your temporal human limitations, on Him..
