P
Philthy
Guest
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Actually the correct term is inerrant. Infallibility only applies to something capable of action.Tim,
Think about what you’re saying.
You say that the Bible is the infallible Word of God.
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Not exactly. Its not that the Word of God needs it, its that you and I need it. The fact that numerous interpretations of basic Christian doctrine exist from genuinely motivated Christians confirms this.But then you say that the infallible Word of God needs a further unveiling by an infalilible teaching magesterium.
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Because it can be stated using AFFIRMATIVE( yes or no) language rather than INTERPRETIVE terms. The bible typically uses phraseology that is vague and left to interpretation. And even when it doesnt people will say it is! A good example is when Christ said “This is my body” The FACT is that you and I don’t know how to interpret that yet it NEEDS interpretation. The magisterium in its capacity as teacher steps in with AFFIRMATIVE terminology and answers the question, “Is the Eucharist the body of Christ?” with the easily understood answer, “YES IT IS” and the confusion is over. Another example is, “Should infants be baptized?” Bible doesn’t say one way or the other DEFINITIVELY. But the magisterium can, and has always said “YES, baptize infants”. No ambiguity.How is an infallible interpretation any better than the infallible revelation?
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Divine revelation is a disclosure or unveiling by God. But to claim, as Catholics do, that God’s infallible unveiling in the Bible needs further infallible unveiling by God is to say that it was not unveiled properly to begin with.
Not at all. That’s entirely a bias on your part. Its only when you elevate the Bible above the Church that you have a problem with it. Where does the bible make the claim you are making? I see numerous references in the NT to “hold fast to the traditions whether by letter or word of mouth”. I see the Church referred to as the “pillar and foundation of Truth”; I see Paul in the very letters used by most Protestants to justify Sola Scriptura (2Tim3:16) telling Timothy(who Paul says "knows all Scripture) that he (Paul) is writing to Timothy so that he will “know how to behave in the Church of the Living God, which is the pillar and foundation of Truth”. And in the end, if I disagree with you, you, according to your theology, have no right to claim any authority to tell me otherwise. In addition, neither of us will actually know Gods intent in Scripture.
Ill write more later - sorry for butting in.
Phil