B
BayCityRickL
Guest
The following is a verse that is often quoted by an evangelical radio-evangelist and is, as I recall, the same concept in Vatican II’s Dei Verbum.Please explain how this verse means Scripture interprets Scripture. I could not find Scripture interprets Scripture after reading it three times.
1COR 2:13 And we speak about them not with words taught by human wisdom, but with words taught by the Spirit, describing spiritual realities in spiritual terms.
And, how does this follow? To the extent that any idea in scripture is a spiritual reality described in spiritual terms, we must adhere to the rendering of scripture.
Dei Verbum says we must 1) take all of scripture together and 2) compare scripture [verses] with scripture [verses].
A large number of posts are pitting verses against verses, and that is neither the evangelical’s nor the Council’s recommendation.
Code:
In a similar way, there are verses that disapprove divorce and
some that seem to approve divorce. OK, which is it? Well,
divorce is condemned by scripture. The evangelical
rationalizes that God approved divorce only in the spiritual
sense, that He divorced Israel after Christ's ministry, because
it was no longer the path of truth. In that context, God was
divorcing the people who were no longer faithful. But, even
then, recall in Amos, I think, God says "I hate divorce." Well,
He does, but it had to be, as I explained. I like that explanation
of scripture in general, and this instance in particular.
I’m sure that the original question only needs a short answer, there are precious few short posts in this thread. GHU (God help us).