The scriptures do not tell us to pray to saints!

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My thought exactly. It certainly doesn’t rule it out. And since we can demonstrate that the Greek word for “all” (*pas) *in many biblical examples does not mean “absolutely every single one, without exception” the “all have sinned” prooftext against the IC is no prooftext at all.
Since the catholic church is making the claim she was without sin, it has the burden of proof. If she was without sin, then we should see this in scripture but we don’t.
 
Where in context of these verses you quote is there any communication-prayer between those on earth and those who have died?
Jesus does not have “dead” body parts. All are alive unto Him.
There is One Body, not one body dead, and another alive. Is Christ divided?
I do understand it but its not scriptural. The concept of any kind of communcation with the those who have died here is foreign to the scriptures.
The communion of the saints, as a term, is not found in scripture, just as the word Trinity is not found there. But the teaching emerges from there nonetheless. However, you are right that the practice of praying to the saints is not “based” in scripture, since it was practiced before the NT was canonized. The scripture came from the Church, and it’s Traditions, not the other way around.
This is not about “truth being revealed to me” but what do the scriptures teach about this. Look up any verse-passage in the NT in context and you will never find such a doctrine or practice. It is totally absent. If the early church after the apostles did teach this such a thing, they did not get it from the Scriptures but from their own ideas
Well, Maria, you are in trouble then. Because the Scriptures you are using also came from “their own ideas”. On the contrary, the Catholic Church teaches that Jesus gave His Apostles all truth, and commissioned them to preach and teach it.
 
whoa! Scripture explicity states to pray togethor!!! the entire body of Christ is praying togethor!!!
 
QUOTE=guanophore;2482101]Jesus does not have “dead” body parts. All are alive unto Him.
There is One Body, not one body dead, and another alive.
Those who have died in Christ are considered “asleep”. See I Thes 4:13.
Is Christ divided?
Yes. Do those who have died have the same nature as us?
The communion of the saints, as a term, is not found in scripture, just as the word Trinity is not found there. But the teaching emerges from there nonetheless. However, you are right that the practice of praying to the saints is not “based” in scripture, since it was practiced before the NT was canonized. The scripture came from the Church, and it’s Traditions, not the other way around.
So you agree that the Scriptures do not teach any communication with the dead?
Well, Maria, you are in trouble then. Because the Scriptures you are using also came from “their own ideas”.
Are you referring to the church fathers or someone outside the canon of Scripture? If so, then “these ideas” are not of the scriptures.
On the contrary, the Catholic Church teaches that Jesus gave His Apostles all truth, and commissioned them to preach and teach it.
He and others also warned that false teachers would come into the church and decieve many with their false teachings.
 
Since the catholic church is making the claim she was without sin, it has the burden of proof. If she was without sin, then we should see this in scripture but we don’t.
You just don’t understand the Catholic teaching on the matter. If you really want it, there are numberous “immaculate” threads you can access, as well as the library. Mary confesses that she rejoices in God her saviour. That is not the same as claiming she is a sinner. However, that is off topic in this thread.
 
Do you really honestly believe that, if you don’t see something in scripture, it did not exist? If it is not written about, it did not happen?

If you don’t have written reocrds or eyewitness accounts all you have is speculations.
Do you really think that the scriptures contain ALL truth?
Since we are both alive in this world and made this request known by this form i can pray for you. Without this, i would not know.
 
Where has your church infallilby interpreted this?
Many places, some of them in the ancient liturgies that exist in both East and West. In them we have prayers to the saints dating back as far as we have records for liturgies.
 
You just don’t understand the Catholic teaching on the matter. If you really want it, there are numberous “immaculate” threads you can access, as well as the library. Mary confesses that she rejoices in God her saviour. That is not the same as claiming she is a sinner. However, that is off topic in this thread.
I do understand this matter and what the catholic church teaches about it. i know Scripture and it doesn’t teach such a thing. What the catholic church relies on is speculation and disregards the scriptures about this.
 
Yes. Do those who have died have the same nature as us?
They don’t lose their human nature because they have left the veil of flesh. In Revelation John can recognize those in heaven who are saints…

I think they can percieve more clearly, since they no longer see through a glass darkly.
So you agree that the Scriptures do not teach any communication with the dead?
Back a couple hundred posts ago, I said that the Tradition of praying to the saints was not based in Scripture, but in Sacred Tradition, which is not a problem for people who are not Sola Scriptura. I never purported that talking to the “dead” was taught in either place. We believe the Saints are alive in heaven with Jesus, and that, by virtue of His life inthem, and His sharing of the ministry of reconciliation, they can intercede for us before the throne of God, and present our petitions in golden bowls like incense.
.
Are you referring to the church fathers or someone outside the canon of Scripture? If so, then “these ideas” are not of the scriptures.
You said that if something was not found in scripture, then it was “people’s own ideas”. I responded that, if that is all the credit you give to Sacred Tradition then you really have a problem, since it was Sacred Tradition that produced those scriptures. The NT was born from the Sacred Traditions, and not the other way around. That is why the Scripture is not the sole rule of faith and authority for the Catholic. Those that don’t know this reject the source of the Scriptures in ignorance.
He and others also warned that false teachers would come into the church and decieve many with their false teachings.
What did Jesus tell us to do when there was a dispute? He said, “take it to the Church”. Which Church is that, justasking? We believe it is the Church build upon Peter, the rock. It is an Apolstolic Church, that clings to the Sacred Traditions that were given to it by word of mouth in Jesus.

BTW, are you going to answer my question about how Peter knew there was a discrepancy between the selling price of the property, and the amount of the offering?
 
How did Peter know what they did?
He asked them. See Acts 5:4
Acts 5:1-4
But a certain man named Ananias, with Sapphira his wife, sold a possession. 2 And he kept back part of the proceeds, his wife also being aware of it, and brought a certain part and laid it at the apostles’ feet. 3 But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and keep back part of the price of the land for yourself? 4 While it remained, was it not your own? And after it was sold, was it not in your own control? Why have you conceived this thing in your heart? You have not lied to men but to God.”

That is not what the text says, justasking. He came in, brought the proceeds, and laid it at the Apostles feet. He did not ask them how much they sold it for, or how much they kept back. Instead, he DECLARED to them they they had lied to the HS.

How did Peter know this?
 
Many places, some of them in the ancient liturgies that exist in both East and West. In them we have prayers to the saints dating back as far as we have records for liturgies.
I understand that. However where have they infallibly interpreted any passages of scripture?
 
How did Peter know what they did?
Acts 5:1-4
But a certain man named Ananias, with Sapphira his wife, sold a possession. 2 And he kept back part of the proceeds, his wife also being aware of it, and brought a certain part and laid it at the apostles’ feet. 3 But Peter said, “Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and keep back part of the price of the land for yourself? 4 While it remained, was it not your own? And after it was sold, was it not in your own control? Why have you conceived this thing in your heart? You have not lied to men but to God.”
2 ways. Revelation by the HS perhaps and asking them.
 
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justasking4:
There is no serious problem for the Catholics in this. The Sacred Tradition contains letters and so forth that are as old as the Bible and continues to this day. These things show us that we are the same Church we always have been.

Sometime, when something is going to be lost, or sees more work done on it, or becomes necessary for the formation of the faithful, it passes into Doctrine.

Let’s look up just one really old one on the Catholic apologetics website:

“[The Shepherd said:] ‘But those who are weak and slothful in prayer, hesitate to ask anything from the Lord; but the Lord is full of compassion, and gives without fail to all who ask him. But you, [Hermas,] having been strengthened by the holy angel [you saw], and having obtained from him such intercession, and not being slothful, why do not you ask of the Lord understanding, and receive it from him?’” (The Shepherd 3:5:4 [A.D. 80]).

Now why would I hesitate to ask God himself? Perhaps I am ashamed? What if I don’t know how to pray? Then, perhaps someone else could help me. Someone closer to Jesus. Like His mom!

catholic.com/library/Intercession_of_the_Saints.asp
 
I understand that. However where have they infallibly interpreted any passages of scripture?
The Scripture contains too much inspiration to be pinned down to one exact meaning. Like searching the eternity.

The Popes however have infallibly interpreted scripture, they create encyclical ex cathedra. These are considered infallible (under certain conditions). BUT, they can be challenged to some extent, because, like the Bible, they can be misinterpreted due to context or culture…
 
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