The Virgin Mary

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The scriptures don’t say that i’m aware of. Let me encourage you to read Ecclesiastes 12:1-7 which sheds some light on this.
I have read that passage which doesn’t. It barely mention anything that souls cannot hear.
These are 2 different concepts. We have no way to know if a soul can hear us hear.
Do you want to take that challenge when you die?
It may be clear but it doesn’t tell us much of the nature of the soul in death i.e. separation from this world. We know something unique was going on here since we know today that if we speak to a dead person in a coffin or wherever that don’t rise up. Evidently Jesus had some special power that made it possible for Him to speak to a dead corpse and bring the soul back to the body.
If Peter was unable to raise the dead would would you say that is illogical?
Jesus did have power. He is God made flesh, and he did verbally instructed the dead to rise and they did so. Likewise, Peter did the same. He verbally told Tabitha to rise and she did.

Peter did raise the dead because he prayed first and then told Tabitha to rise.
 
Excuse me Manny,

I am not making an accusation. I am asking how you can be sure that your “uncle Henry” is in heaven.

Are you saying you only pray to the saints recognized by the Catholic church?

Because I know a lot of people who pray to deceased relatives.
 
I think it is boarderline blaspheme to suggest we know who is and isn’t saved.
 
I don’t believe the saints can communicate with us unless God desires it for His purpose.
You are free to believe that. Asking saints to pray for us does not imply that we don’t need God. It mainly ask the saints to pray with us.

I could easily say by your premise. I don’t need your prayers because I find your prayers unnecessary. So instead I will go to God himself.
 
I think it is boarderline blaspheme to suggest we know who is and isn’t saved.
We don’t know who isn’t saved, but we can know that certain people are, by whether they died a good death, or not.

If they died a good death, then they went to Heaven. If they did not, we can still have hope that they made it anyway, but we can’t be certain.
 
jm,

What is your definition of a good death. Please relate this to someone living in this century AND a death other than being murdered for being a Christian.

How does a Christian in the USA die a “good death” so we may know that person is in heaven?
 
Mannyfit75;2709318]I have read that passage which doesn’t. It barely mention anything that souls cannot hear.
The point in the passage is that there is a separation between the 2. One goes to his eternal home while the other stays in this world. No mention or inkling that each was to communicate with each other.
Do you want to take that challenge when you die?
i don’t look at it as some kind of challenge but as something the scriptures don’t teach,
Jesus did have power. He is God made flesh, and he did verbally instructed the dead to rise and they did so. Likewise, Peter did the same. He verbally told Tabitha to rise and she did.
Peter did raise the dead because he prayed first and then told Tabitha to rise.
Would you agree that some kind of special power was involved here?
 
Excuse me Manny,

I am not making an accusation. I am asking how you can be sure that your “uncle Henry” is in heaven.
If he repentent the last few seconds of his life, with contrite heart, he will be in heaven. If he died in venial sin, he would be in purgatory, so the prayers of the faithful is needed to loose them from their sins.
2 Macc. 12:43-45:
But if he did this with a view to the splendid reward that awaits those who had gone to rest in godliness, it was a holy and pious thought.

Thus he made atonement for the dead that they might be freed from this sin
Are you saying you only pray to the saints recognized by the Catholic church?
Praying to saints is acceptible and recognized by the Catholic Church.
Because I know a lot of people who pray to deceased relatives.
This brings up another issue. We pray for the dead in hopes they will be lose from their sins. Even the Jews today pray for the dead called the Mourners Kaddesh, same with Orthodox Christians, they pray for the dead.
 
The point in the passage is that there is a separation between the 2. One goes to his eternal home while the other stays in this world. No mention or inkling that each was to communicate with each other.
There isn’t. The fact that Jesus spoke ot Lazarus and rose from the dead is clear. That fact that Peter told Tabitha to get up is pretty clear.

I think the clear passage in the Bible is the Transfiguration of Jesus Christ who was** conversing with Elijah and Moses**. You know Moses is dead. Tell me how could he be conversing with Jesus?
Would you agree that some kind of special power was involved here?
God did. Souls can communicate. They aren’t mute souls.
 
Manny, you said if they repent “with contrite heart”, but humans cannot see into a person’s heart. So we don’t KNOW. We simply trust God to have mercy and believe that we will see our loved ones again.

From what you are saying I gather you do not ask dead relatives to pray to God for you - only the saints recognized by the Church. If I understand correctly, that answers my question.
 
Because I know a lot of people who pray to deceased relatives.
I would be one of them.

My niece, who died from drowning when she was 18 months, having been baptized, and not having aquired the use of reason to sin, is our family’s own personal saint.

Whole and complete in heaven, having been baptized into Christ, she surely enjoys what I one day hope to enjoy, so long as I can persist in my friendship with God.
 
jm,

What is your definition of a good death. Please relate this to someone living in this century AND a death other than being murdered for being a Christian.
I will relate the story of my friend Danny, who died of lung cancer in 1994.

When he found out that he was not going to recover, he went straight away to Confession. He also received the Sacrament of the Sick. Every day that he could walk, he walked to Mass and received Holy Communion. On days that he couldn’t walk, his wife called the Church, and an EMHC brought him Holy Communion.

When it was getting near the end, he was taken to the hospital and put on morphine, to dull the pain. (His lungs felt like they were on fire, at this point, and he was unable to function at all.)

Right away, a priest was brought to him, because they realized that he was not going to be able to speak for very much longer. So, he then made a final Confession, and again received the Sacrament of the Sick, and Holy Communion.

From that day until the day he died, he received Holy Communion every day. In addition, his friends and family gathered around his bed side and prayed the Rosary. Hearing the prayers chanted out loud calmed him, even though he was in so much pain. (By this time, the morphine was no longer working.)

When he finally stopped breathing altogether, and died, he had no fear, and embraced the world to come with great joy.

Even such a long and painful death did not have the power to take away his joy in Jesus Christ. I feel sure that he went directly to Heaven from his death bed, because his faith never once wavered throughout the entire trial of his illness.
 
Manny, you said if they repent “with contrite heart”, but humans cannot see into a person’s heart. So we don’t KNOW. We simply trust God to have mercy and believe that we will see our loved ones again.

From what you are saying I gather you do not ask dead relatives to pray to God for you - only the saints recognized by the Church. If I understand correctly, that answers my question.
Exactly. I don’t ask anything to my dead relatives. It’s a pity though I don’t know enough about my grandmother or grandfather. I do know I trust in God’s mercy.
 
Manny, you said if they repent “with contrite heart”, but humans cannot see into a person’s heart. So we don’t KNOW. We simply trust God to have mercy and believe that we will see our loved ones again.

From what you are saying I gather you do not ask dead relatives to pray to God for you - only the saints recognized by the Church. If I understand correctly, that answers my question.
One of the reasons that the church does not generally encourage praying to deceased family members as though they were saint (the circumstance I list being an exceptional situation) is because it is expected we pray for our dead.
 
Well, many do pray to Mary. Offcourse, the difference is the pastor has the ability to respond to the request.

I imagine lotsa stuff too. It’s just not the basis of doctrine.

How do you know that???

Mary does not have the ability to hear millions of prayers at once. She is not a demi-goddess.
How can you be sure that your pastor will not forget to comply with your request? You can’t be sure. :nope: With Mary we can be absolutely sure. If we ask her to pray for us in the Lord’s name, she will do it. :yup: And she does have the ability to hear and answer our prayers, for she exists body and soul in heaven with her divine Son. Mary is immersed in the Beatific Vision of God, so our prayers to her involve Him. Praying to Mary is praying to God with her, for she is in such close communion with Him and has been ever since the Holy Spirit overshadowed her in the Annunciation. :gopray:

I am well aware that lots of stuff you imaginatively express on this Forum is not the basis of true Christian doctrine. 😉 Anyway, Albert Einstein regarded the human imagination greater than human knowledge. If, for instance, Christopher Columbus had never first imagined that the earth was round, he would not have set sail and learned with absolute certainty that our planet was not flat, as most other people had imagined at the time. We cannot infer something potentially knowledgeable if we have no faculty of imagination to begin with. Intuitive knowledge requires an imagination. The Holy Spirit enlightens the Church by way of human intuition granting her a share in divine knowledge. Theological speculation relies on it as the Church develops her doctrines within the bounds of Sacred Scriptures and Sacred Tradition. Peter intuited the divinity of Christ by the grace of God. :bowdown2: He made his profession by initially imagining things Jesus had already said and done. For him the world was round. He knew Jesus was the Son of God before he set sail. Columbus would not have risked sailing over the edge of the world if he hadn’t been sure of the planet’s actual shape. In a similar vein, the Catholic sees the Word of God as something round. The divine truth is not what it appears to be on the surface, something flat. There is something in the entire picture that suggests otherwise. To discover the fullness of this truth experientially, he sets sail and explores beneath the surface of appearance to discover for himself and confirm his belief. The Protestant fundamentalist, on the contrary, looks at the Bible and perceives it as something flat. He is either unable to penetrate and break through the surface of appearance or refuses to accept the belief that the fullness of divine truth lies beneath the surface or over the horizon so to speak; either he has no imagination or deliberately denies it. He will not discover the truth until he admits to himself that the world is in fact round and sets sail to prove it. 👋

You ask how the Catholic Church knows that Mary exists body and soul in heaven with her Son. To find the answer please read the Apostolic Constitution, ‘Munificentissimus Deus’, of Pope Pius Xll (1950). The Assumption of Mary is an infallible dogmatic teaching grounded on Sacred Scripture and Sacred Tradition. And you ask how it is we know that Jesus listens to his mother: He changed the water into wine, didn’t he?

In the Gospel of Matthew, Jesus promises that in the Resurrection we will “be like angels”. Mary already has been resurrected from the dead with her Assumption into heaven. She is no longer the same person she was on earth before her death. She exists in eternity with God. This means she is no longer constrained by the physical dimensions of time and space. In eternity she exists beside time and space. What might be regarded as a single moment in the physical world could become millions of separate moments in the spiritual world relative to us. Mary could hear the prayers of each person one at a time in heaven although everyone is praying at the same time here on earth. Jesus said, “My kingdom is not of this world.” And so it transcends the four dimensions of our physical universe: length, width, depth, and time. Mary’s ability to hear all our prayers does not mean that she has to be omnipresent. It simply means she exists outside time in eternity. Eternity is the point beyond to which our supplications converge. Mary could receive the prayers of a million people at once in the time it would take the first person to finish his prayer on earth. In the musical recording industry multitracking allows 24 songs to be recorded at once. This information processing of material from separate sources operates not in “real” time but “beside” time.

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:
 
“She eternally says to us ‘do whatever He tells you’.”

Well, Jesus tells us
"…when thou prayest, …pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly. " Mat 6:6

“…pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, …” (Mat 6:9) (Luk 11:2)

"Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give [it] you. " (John 15:16) (John 16:23)

“And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.” (Jhn 14:13)

Not one Bible verse does Jesus tell us to pray to Mary. Can you find even one statement where the Apostles or Early Church Fathers claim that Jesus said this? Iwould be interested in seeing it.
I think you are misunderstanding the use of the word “prayer” in this context. It is no different than Paul, when he asks fellow believers to pray for him.
 
“She eternally says to us ‘do whatever He tells you’.”

Well, Jesus tells us
"…when thou prayest, …pray to thy Father which is in secret; and thy Father which seeth in secret shall reward thee openly. " Mat 6:6

“…pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, …” (Mat 6:9) (Luk 11:2)

"Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give [it] you. " (John 15:16) (John 16:23)

“And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.” (Jhn 14:13)

Not one Bible verse does Jesus tell us to pray to Mary. Can you find even one statement where the Apostles or Early Church Fathers claim that Jesus said this? Iwould be interested in seeing it.
I think you are misunderstanding the use of the word “prayer” in this context. It is no different than Paul, when he asks fellow believers to pray for him.
If Mary tells you to do whatever Jesus tells you to do, why spend so much time doing it (praying) any other way?

Jesus said pray directly to God - Ask in Jesus’ name and it will be given According to God’s will If we believe.

To say ten Hail Mary’s for every one Our Father is out of line with what Jesus has taught us.
You are just misunderstanding the nature of intercessory prayer. Asking another believer to pray for you does not in any way detract from your own prayers to God. Or, maybe you don’t know how the Hail Mary prayer goes?

“pray for us now, and at the hour of death”
 
This Thread has gotten way off track and I find myself debating issues that I am not really opposed to, not are they important to me.

I don’t really have a problem with Catholics praying to whom ever they want. My issue with praying to the saints stems over Catholics who insist praying directly to God is less effective.

The whole point of this thread (and I should know since I started it) has to do with the immense focus Catholics put on Mary to the point of saying God couldn’t accomplish His task without her.

Anytime limitations are placed on God that person is in error.

If Mary was born with original sin it would not have a negative effect on the incarnate deity as some have suggested.

Many favored people in the Bible refused God. The ill consequences were suffered upon that individual. God still achieved what He set out to do. (ie Jonah)

Many people in the Bible tried to do God’s will their way. The ill consequences were suffered upon that individual and God still achieved what He set out to do. (ie Moses)

And Many people is the Bible willing submitted to God’s will and reaped the benefits. (ie Noah)

Far too much importance is placed on Mary as tho God couldn’t have done it without her. God is not dependent on any human being. God does what He wants despite our human imperfections. And even when we are reluctant, He manages to get it done in perfect timing.

Furthermore, the earliest Church teaching denies the claim of Mary’s sinless perfection: (Origen at Alexandria (185-232))

No documentation from the Church during this same era is found to disagree with Origen claim.

It was almost two hundred later before the first documented instance of a Church official making claim to the immaculate conception of Mary.(ie St. Ephram)

Unlike Origen, St. Ephram did have opposition to his claim. St. Basil & St. Chrysostom both disagreed with Ephram and claim Mary sinned.

And Finally, Mary had to be born with original sin according to Scripture:

Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
 
I don’t think that was said. In fact, one of the criteria for inclusion in the canon was that a book had Apostolic authority.
And the criterion for “oral tradition” is that it was taught by the Apostles from the beginning. You have yet to prove any of the Apostles taught the IC and sinlessness of Mary.
It is not “either/or” but “both/and”. The Apostles interpreted the scriptures differently than the modern evangelicals do.
That’s quite an assertion, G. And you know this how?
This is a very important statement. The scriptures were never meant to be separated from the Apostolic teaching they represent.
Absolutely. That’s why one must interpret according to its context and not read extra-biblical doctrines into the text…
You are right that “normal readings” produce all kinds of non-Apostolic understandings because they are not first introduced to the right teachings.
What you’re saying here, G., is that one is not to strive to allow the Scriptures to speak for themselves, but one must conform the Scriptures to the “right teachings” of the “teaching authority” of your church. In context Lk. 1:28 states absolutely nothing about Mary’s conception, but instead the One she is about to conceive through the power of the Holy Spirit. For this reason the angel Gabriel addressed her as “favored one” and explains his greeting in vss. 30-31.
I am not sure about that either. I think it is possible that Luke is the only one that had extensive contact with Mary, by virture of his long stay in Ephesus where she lived with John. I think it is more likely that Mary shared all these stories with Luke directly.
Of course this is all based upon speculation on your part. However, Luke states nothing about her being immaculately conceived or sinless either in his Gospel account or his historical account of Acts. Those extra-biblical Marian dogmas, embraced over time by Catholicism, were formulated by human reasoning subsequent to the Apostolic age (unless you can prove otherwise). How would Mary herself know she was immaculately conceived? How would her mother even know? Such knowledge would have required divine revelation. So, AGAIN, to whom, personally, did God reveal this alleged conception? Who (which Apostle), according to your “oral tradition,” did God personally reveal this otherwise impossible to know bit of information about Mary?

And along the same line, how could anyone know that Mary was sinless throughout her entire life? As Paul writes in 1 Cor. 2:11:"For who among men knows the thoughts of a man except the the spirit of the man, which is in him"Hence, Mary’s alleged sinlessness would also have to have been something divinely revealed since sins are not restricted to overt actions only, but begin within the heart of a man/woman (see Matt. 5:28; 9:4; 12:34; 15:18). So to whom (which Apostle) did God personally reveal this phenomenon? “Oral tradition” by definition must be followed back to the oral teachings of the Apostles who got their teachings straight from Christ Himself. Your bishops quote you written opinions of various early writers, but unless they have proof that such expressed, extra-biblical opinions can be traced back to the Apostles, they remain nothing more than that: personal opinions without any historical (Apostolic) substance.
We believe this about all the teachings of God! We cannot know anything about HIm unless it is revealed to us according to His will.
Well, this is especially true of Marian dogmas such as her IC and sinlessness. Things which no man could observe. Human reasoning doesn’t cut it. And from the research I’ve done, subjective, human reasoning is their source, not objective divine revelation.
By definition, divine revelation that is public is not personally owned, or “private”.
You missed my point. By “own” it I meant to whom did God personally reveal it? Historically no Apostle claimed such knowledge about Mary.
 
Righteousness comes by faith. This is how Abraham was accounted righteous.
It’s not “how” Abraham was accounted righteous. Personal faith in the Lord was why God reckoned it (his faith) to him as righteousness:Gen. 15:6 "Then he (Abraham) believed in the Lord; and He (the Lord) reckoned it (his faith) to him as righteousness."The righteousness of the redeemed believer is not inherent or accomplished, it’s foreign. It’s a “righteousness that comes from God on the basis of faith” (Phil. 3:9)
I don’t question it at all! In fact, this is what the Church teaches happened with Mary. She said herself that God was her savior. The merits of Christ’s saving grace were applied to her in advance, just as they were to Elijah and Enoch.
Scripture doesn’t say that the “merits” of Christ were applied to Elijah and Enoch “in advance.” But rather God “overlooked,” “passed over” sins previously committed until they were dealt with, once for all, at the cross of Christ. God had his Judgment Day on ALL sin 2000 years ago - including Mary’s (Jn. 1:29).

Now the RC doctrine of Mary is quite different. Rather than God “overlooking” sins until the substitutional, sacrificial work of Christ on the cross, it’s taught (without any proof) that Mary was prevented from being born with “original sin” and from actual sins throughout her life. No matter how you spin this doctrine, G., Mary then was never in need of the application of Christ’s merits. She cannot be a partaker of His redemptive work. No redemption is required when there is no sin from which to be redeemed.

However, the Biblical FACT that Mary calls the Lord her savior reveals that Scripture and Rome are at odds regarding Mary. One is far safer and wiser to stay with Scripture, especially since Rome can provide no divine proof of her Marian doctrines.
Fortunately CAtholics are not limited to the divine revelation that is present in scripture, but also have the fullness of divine revelation from other sources. The fact that this teaching has been affirmed by the magesterium (teaching authority)of the church is sufficient “proof” that this teaching has been contained within the Apostolic succession.
Well, the only so-called “proof” you have is your teaching authority which says believe it because we tell you to. You’ve got to do better than that, G.
I have to take issue with this. The woman is already IN heaven! This being apocalyptic literature, it is counterproductive to take the images literally or confine them to the space time continuum. However, John opens the passage saying “the heavens were opened” and that he “saw a woman clothed with the sun”. She may be the heavenly Jerusalem, the pure Bride of God… 🤷
The sign appears in heaven but the events shown in the heavenly sign take place on earth.
 
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