I don’t think that was said. In fact, one of the criteria for inclusion in the canon was that a book had Apostolic authority.
And the criterion for “oral tradition” is that it was taught by the Apostles from the beginning. You have yet to prove any of the Apostles taught the IC and sinlessness of Mary.
It is not “either/or” but “both/and”. The Apostles interpreted the scriptures differently than the modern evangelicals do.
That’s quite an assertion, G. And you know this how?
This is a very important statement. The scriptures were never meant to be separated from the Apostolic teaching they represent.
Absolutely. That’s why one must interpret according to
its context and not read extra-biblical doctrines into the text…
You are right that “normal readings” produce all kinds of non-Apostolic understandings because they are not first introduced to the right teachings.
What you’re saying here, G., is that one is not to strive to allow the Scriptures to speak for themselves, but one must conform the Scriptures to the “
right teachings” of the “teaching authority” of your church. In context Lk. 1:28 states absolutely nothing about Mary’s conception, but instead the One she is about to conceive through the power of the Holy Spirit. For this reason the angel Gabriel addressed her as “
favored one” and explains his greeting in vss. 30-31.
I am not sure about that either. I think it is possible that Luke is the only one that had extensive contact with Mary, by virture of his long stay in Ephesus where she lived with John. I think it is more likely that Mary shared all these stories with Luke directly.
Of course this is all based upon speculation on your part. However, Luke states nothing about her being immaculately conceived or sinless either in his Gospel account or his historical account of Acts. Those extra-biblical Marian dogmas, embraced over time by Catholicism, were formulated by human reasoning subsequent to the Apostolic age (unless you can prove otherwise). How would Mary herself know she was immaculately conceived? How would her mother even know? Such knowledge would have required divine revelation. So, AGAIN, to whom, personally, did God reveal this alleged conception? Who (which Apostle), according to your “oral tradition,” did God personally reveal this otherwise impossible to know bit of information about Mary?
And along the same line, how could anyone know that Mary was sinless throughout her entire life? As Paul writes in 1 Cor. 2:11:"For who among men knows the thoughts of a man except the the spirit of the man, which is in him"Hence, Mary’s
alleged sinlessness would also have to have been something divinely revealed since sins are not restricted to overt actions only, but begin within the heart of a man/woman (see Matt. 5:28; 9:4; 12:34; 15:18). So to whom (which Apostle) did God personally reveal this phenomenon? “Oral tradition” by definition must be followed back to the oral teachings of the Apostles who got their teachings straight from Christ Himself. Your bishops quote you written opinions of various early writers, but unless they have proof that such expressed, extra-biblical opinions can be traced back to the Apostles, they remain nothing more than that: personal opinions without any historical (Apostolic) substance.
We believe this about all the teachings of God! We cannot know anything about HIm unless it is revealed to us according to His will.
Well, this is especially true of Marian dogmas such as her IC and sinlessness. Things which no man could observe. Human reasoning doesn’t cut it. And from the research I’ve done, subjective, human reasoning is their source, not objective divine revelation.
By definition, divine revelation that is public is not personally owned, or “private”.
You missed my point. By “own” it I meant to whom did God personally reveal it? Historically no Apostle claimed such knowledge about Mary.