C
Church_Militant
Guest
Did or did not St. John refer to Jesus as “lamb that was slain before the foundation of the world” (In the book of Revelation). Then that means that the sacrifice of christ is timeless and therefore is the source of salvation of all the faithful Jews in the OT up to and including the Blessed Virgin. Who are we to question the manner and time in which god chooses to apply that sacrifice?Church Militant-
Quote:
Mary was saved by the same sacrifice of Christ that we were
I just want to know what was she saved from? Hell? Why did she need to be saved if she never sinned?
I do believe Mary is saved; just do not believe that she never sinned.
This question still stands…
Why did Mary need to get saved if she was sinless and did not need a savior?
Mary was saved from original sin, since as you rightly point out it is enough to send one to hell. The fact that she was called “full of grace” by no less than the angel Gabriel means that special grace was given her and that she cooperated with it to live a sinless life. Now SURELY you’re not gonna sit there and try to tell me that such is not possible, because if you do then you proclaim that God’s grace is not sufficient enough to help us live a sinless life (as we know we’re ALL called to). Did it occur to you that living in the constant presence of Jesus all her life would affect the way one lived? I don’t need a Bible verse to see that, and you don’t believe it either because you and I agree that the presence of Jesus in our lives is what makes us live the better lives we do. As we cooperate with the grace of God we live better and better lives. We sin when we fail to cooperate with that grace…right?! So…this is not rocket science or “theological mystery”.
You needn’t try to mock our beliefs…especially since you don’t really know or understand them (and don’t seem to be listening when we answer…)
Pax vobiscum