J
justasking4
Guest
Romans 5:12 would apply here also…Emeraldisle, please answer the question.
Does a stillborn–or a newborn–sin?
Yes. . .or no.
It is such a simple and petty question. Why can’t you simply answer?
Romans 5:12 would apply here also…Emeraldisle, please answer the question.
Does a stillborn–or a newborn–sin?
Yes. . .or no.
It is such a simple and petty question. Why can’t you simply answer?
Does that mean your answer would be “Yes?” What kind of sin would a baby have – original sin, personal sin, or both? The Catholic view is that the baby would have original sin but not any personal sin.Romans 5:12 would apply here also…
But Rom 5:12 is very explicit that that all have sinned. All have actually committed sin, not just that all are affected by Adam’s sin.Does that mean your answer would be “Yes?” What kind of sin would a baby have – original sin, personal sin, or both? The Catholic view is that the baby would have original sin but not any personal sin.
That isn’t my reading of Rom. 5:12 at all. What personal sin could a baby commit?But Rom 5:12 is very explicit that that all have sinned. All have actually committed sin, not just that all are affected by Adam’s sin.
That’s exactly the question we’ve been asking for 340 posts now. The language is very clear: “all have sinned”. This can only mean personal sin, since none of us has “original sinned”. Our association with original sin is passive, but “all have sinned” is a statement of active behavior.That isn’t my reading of Rom. 5:12 at all. What personal sin could a baby commit?
And how does he know that translation is accurate?Just a quick question : by what authority do translators translate.
An if the translation is so important what translation do you use emeraldisle?
[Angel Gabriel implies…greeting Hail full of grace]
Please correct me if I am wrong, but doesn’t th CC use this phrase from Gabriel in the Catholic doctrine, the Assumption of Mary? Even if this phrase is used for argument in the sinlessness of Mary, shouldn’t it be used for all believers as stated in Ephesians 1:6 since the exact same Greek term (charitoo) is used in both instances? Can’t have one without the other.
No, the Church does not teach this reasoning AFAIK. She does teach the fact of Mary’s sinlessness, but not necessarily this reasoning behind the fact.To anyone who can answer. I just want to be clear on this issue. Mary was sinless, as the Catholic Church states for the purpose of “original sin” not contaminating the Savior at birth? Also, does this mean that Mary was not only sinless, but she also had holy, unfallen flesh as Adam & Eve before the fall so as not to pass the hereditary fallen nature to the Savior? Thankyou for your CC’s official stance on these questions.
Nope, apples and oranges. From members.aol.com/johnprh/conception.htmlPlease correct me if I am wrong, but doesn’t th CC use this phrase from Gabriel in the Catholic doctrine, the Assumption of Mary? Even if this phrase is used for argument in the sinlessness of Mary, shouldn’t it be used for all believers as stated in Ephesians 1:6 since the exact same Greek term (charitoo) is used in both instances? Can’t have one without the other.
…Church doesn’t teach this reasoning]
I need to know the reasoning behind this doctrine. If anyone can help, I would appreciate it. Need official CC stand on reason. Thankyou. The reason of "original sin’ doesn’t quite explain if it has nothing to do with the human nature of our Savior.
You’re insisting that God provide a reason for doing something. Well, sometimes he gives his reasons and sometimes he doesn’t.I need to know the reasoning behind this doctrine. If anyone can help, I would appreciate it. Need official CC stand on reason. Thankyou. The reason of "original sin’ doesn’t quite explain if it has nothing to do with the human nature of our Savior.
…apples & oranges]
Thanks Mike for the Greek lesson. My question is, how does this prove the sinlessness of Mary? Why didn’t the writers use the same language they did for the perfect sinlessness of our Savior? It is beyond very vague for Mary. It seems that the interpretation takes alot of free expression on mans part to come up with Marys sinlessness from just this phrase. If you keep it in context, it has nothing to do with being sinless. From Eve to Mary, all believing woman were hoping to be the one to be the progenitor of the Messiah. Thanks for your replies.
Why not read the dogmatic proclamation: Ineffabilis DeusI need to know the reasoning behind this doctrine. If anyone can help, I would appreciate it. Need official CC stand on reason. Thankyou. The reason of "original sin’ doesn’t quite explain if it has nothing to do with the human nature of our Savior.
[Your insisting that God have a reason…]
Well I don’t know about you, but the One I worship is not arbitrary nor a respecter of persons. What does being sinless have to do with free will? Because we are sinners we don’t have free will? I guess we are just a bunch of automatons with no mind to choose. Goes against, “Choose you this day whom you will serve, as for me & my house, we choose Elohim (God).” Kind of a far stretch to prove the sinlessness of Mary. Thanks for your replies.